English Grammar objective Solved Questions One Word for many words
English Grammar Quiz one word substitution
In each of the following questions, out of the given alternatives,
choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.
1. Intentional destruction of racial groups
(a) Homicide
(b) Genocide
(c) Fratricide
(d) Regicide
ANSWER: (b)
2. Study of statistics of births, deaths, diseases to show the state of community
(a) Geography
(b) Anthropology
(c) Topography
(d) Demography
ANSWER: (d)
3. A sudden rush of wind
(a) Gale
(b) Typhoon
(c) Gust
(d) Storm
ANSWER: (c)
4. An unexpected stroke of good luck
(G) Fortune
(b) Windfall
(c) Boon
(d) Breakthrough
ANSWER: (b)
5. Not conforming to ordinary poles of behaviour
(a) Lunatic
(b) Absurd
(c) Eccentric
(d) Maniacal
ANSWER: (c)
6. Short descriptive poem of picturesque scene or incident
(a) Malady
(b) Sonnet
(c) Idyll
(d) Charade
ANSWER: (c)
7. A person who is reserved in talks
(a) Reticent
(b) Silent
(c) Mendicant
(d) Garrulous
ANSWER: (a)
8. A raised place on which offerings to a god are made
(a) Mound
(b) Chapel
(c) Altar
(d) Archives
ANSWER: (c)
9. Constant effort to achieve something
(a) Perseverance
(b) Attempt
(c) Enthusiasm
(d) Vigor
ANSWER: (b)
10. A person who looks on the bright side of things
(a) Sycophant
(b) Optimist
(c) Cynic
(d) Pessimist
ANSWER: (b)
11. One who cuts precious stones
(a) Philatelist
(b) Drover
(c) Alpinist
(d) Oculist
ANSWER: (c)
12. A person not sure of the existence of God
(a) Theist
(b) Atheist
(c) Agnostic
(d) Cynic
ANSWER: (c)
13. Which can be easily believed?
(a) Credulous
(b) Creditable
(c) Trustworthy
(d) Credible
ANSWER: (d)
14. A person with full discretionary powers to act on behalf of a country
(a) Ambassador
(b) Emissary
(c) Plenipotentiary
(d) Envoy
ANSWER: (c)
15. To deprive a thing of its holy character
(a) Sacrilege
(b) Blasphemy
(c) Consecrate
(d) Desecrate
ANSWER: (d)
Monday, December 12, 2011
Friday, December 9, 2011
India GK Solved test for Exams
India GK Solved test for Exams
Online General Knowledge Test Solved Objective MCQ Type
1. How many times can a person be elected as President of U.S.A.?
(a) Three times
(b) Two times
(c) No limit
(d) Four times
Answer. (b)
2. Which statutory official in India can participate in Lok Sabha discussions but can
Not vote?
(a) Chief Election Commissioner
(b) Attorney General
(c) Comptroller and Auditor General
(d) Leader of opposition
Answer. (b)
3. What has been the annual exponential growth
Rate of population in India during 1981-91:
(a) l. ll per cent
(b) 2.Ol per cent
(c) 2.l4 per cent
(d) 2.35 per cent
Answer. (c)
4. Where is the Institute of Sugar Technology situated?
(a) Delhi
(b) Pimpri
(c) Kanpur
(d) Mumbai
Answer. (c)
5. Where is Indian Institute of Experimental Medicine located?
(a) Ahmedabad
(b) Calcutta
(c) Lucknow
(d) New Delhi
(e) Pune
Answer. (b)
6. Where the Rajiv Gandhi Institute of Youth Development is being setup?
(a) Hyderabad
(b) New Delhi
(c) Sriperambadur
(d) Ahmedabad
(e) Bombay
Answer. (c)
7. The highest Indian decoration for showing Valour and gallantry in the war is:
(a) Param Vishistha Seva Medal
(b) Ashoka Chakra
(c) Param Vir Chakra
(d) Mahavir Chakra
(e) None of these
Answer. (c)
8. What is the sex ratio in India according to the Census of 1991?
(a) 923 females per 1000 males
(b) 912 females per 1000 males
(c) 927 females per 1000 males
(d) 930 females per 1000 males
Answer. (c)
9. Which institution is responsible for the Formulation of 5 Years Plans in India?
(a) National Productivity Council
(b) Planning Commission
(c) National Development Council
(d) None of these
Answer. (b)
10. Which train in India has the longest route Length?
(a) Himgiri Express
(b) Himsagar Express
(c) G.T. Express
(d) Guwahati-Trivendrum Express
Answer. (b)
11. Electrical Current is measured by:
(a) Voltameter
(b) Anemometer
(c) Watt meter
(d) Ammeter
Answer. (d)
12. Where is SHAR space centre located?
(a) Trivendrum
(b) Bangalore
(c) Shrihari Kota
(d) Arvi
Answer. (c)
13. Which of the following is the name of the
German International Airlines?
(a) Cathay Pacific
(b) Qantas
(c) KLM
(d) Lufthansa
Answer. (d)
14. The deepest point in the oceans is
(a) Marians Trench
(b) Galathea deep
(c) Bartholomew deep
(d) Mindanao deep
Answer. (a)
15. What is the total number of major ports in
India?
(a) 6
(b) 11
(c) 8
(d) 9
Answer. (b)
16. The spinning of the earth on its imaginary
Axis is known as:
(a) Rotation
(b) Aphelion
(c) Perihelion
(d) Revolution
(e) Orbit
Answer. (a)
17. Khajuraho is situated in the state of:
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Madhya Pradesh
(e) Orissa
Answer. (d)
18. What does the Mercator Projection refer to?
(a) Lines of longitude and latitude drawn in
Curved lines
(b) High altitude contours
(c) Lines of latitude and longitude drawn in
Straight lines
(d) Equatorial belt
Answer. (c)
19. Who can preside but cannot vote in one of
The Houses of Parliament?
(a) Speaker
(b) Deputy Speaker
(c) Vice President
(d) Vice Chairman
Answer. (c)
20. Which amendment to the Constitution of
India affirmed the power of the Parliament to
Amend any part of the Constitution including
That relating to Fundamental Rights:
(a) 26th
(b) 25th
(c) 24th
(d) 23rd
Answer. (c)
21. The 38th (Amendment) Act to the Constitution
Of India relates to:
(a) Raising the upper limit of membership Of Lok Sabha
(b) President’s ‘satisfaction’ in declaring Emergency has been made non justiciable
(c) Provision for a Legislative Assembly and Council of minister for Arunachal Pradesh
(d) Sikkim became the 22nd state of the Indian Union
Answer. (b)
22 Under what article of the Constitution of India Can the President take over the administration
Of a State in case its constitutional machinery Breaks down?
(a) Article 83(2)
(b) Article 352
(c) Article 356
(d) Article 343
Answer. (c)
23. How many languages are recognized by the Constitution of India in the 8th Schedule?
(a) 14
(b) 16
(c) 18
(d) 12
Answer. (c)
24. Into how many commands is the Indian army Organized?
(a) Four
(b) Six
(c) Five
(d) Seven
Answer. (b)
25. The oceans cover ...... of the surface of the
Earth:
(a) 50%
(b) 60%
(c) 71%
(d) 80%
(e) 90%
Answer. (c)
Online General Knowledge Test Solved Objective MCQ Type
1. How many times can a person be elected as President of U.S.A.?
(a) Three times
(b) Two times
(c) No limit
(d) Four times
Answer. (b)
2. Which statutory official in India can participate in Lok Sabha discussions but can
Not vote?
(a) Chief Election Commissioner
(b) Attorney General
(c) Comptroller and Auditor General
(d) Leader of opposition
Answer. (b)
3. What has been the annual exponential growth
Rate of population in India during 1981-91:
(a) l. ll per cent
(b) 2.Ol per cent
(c) 2.l4 per cent
(d) 2.35 per cent
Answer. (c)
4. Where is the Institute of Sugar Technology situated?
(a) Delhi
(b) Pimpri
(c) Kanpur
(d) Mumbai
Answer. (c)
5. Where is Indian Institute of Experimental Medicine located?
(a) Ahmedabad
(b) Calcutta
(c) Lucknow
(d) New Delhi
(e) Pune
Answer. (b)
6. Where the Rajiv Gandhi Institute of Youth Development is being setup?
(a) Hyderabad
(b) New Delhi
(c) Sriperambadur
(d) Ahmedabad
(e) Bombay
Answer. (c)
7. The highest Indian decoration for showing Valour and gallantry in the war is:
(a) Param Vishistha Seva Medal
(b) Ashoka Chakra
(c) Param Vir Chakra
(d) Mahavir Chakra
(e) None of these
Answer. (c)
8. What is the sex ratio in India according to the Census of 1991?
(a) 923 females per 1000 males
(b) 912 females per 1000 males
(c) 927 females per 1000 males
(d) 930 females per 1000 males
Answer. (c)
9. Which institution is responsible for the Formulation of 5 Years Plans in India?
(a) National Productivity Council
(b) Planning Commission
(c) National Development Council
(d) None of these
Answer. (b)
10. Which train in India has the longest route Length?
(a) Himgiri Express
(b) Himsagar Express
(c) G.T. Express
(d) Guwahati-Trivendrum Express
Answer. (b)
11. Electrical Current is measured by:
(a) Voltameter
(b) Anemometer
(c) Watt meter
(d) Ammeter
Answer. (d)
12. Where is SHAR space centre located?
(a) Trivendrum
(b) Bangalore
(c) Shrihari Kota
(d) Arvi
Answer. (c)
13. Which of the following is the name of the
German International Airlines?
(a) Cathay Pacific
(b) Qantas
(c) KLM
(d) Lufthansa
Answer. (d)
14. The deepest point in the oceans is
(a) Marians Trench
(b) Galathea deep
(c) Bartholomew deep
(d) Mindanao deep
Answer. (a)
15. What is the total number of major ports in
India?
(a) 6
(b) 11
(c) 8
(d) 9
Answer. (b)
16. The spinning of the earth on its imaginary
Axis is known as:
(a) Rotation
(b) Aphelion
(c) Perihelion
(d) Revolution
(e) Orbit
Answer. (a)
17. Khajuraho is situated in the state of:
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Madhya Pradesh
(e) Orissa
Answer. (d)
18. What does the Mercator Projection refer to?
(a) Lines of longitude and latitude drawn in
Curved lines
(b) High altitude contours
(c) Lines of latitude and longitude drawn in
Straight lines
(d) Equatorial belt
Answer. (c)
19. Who can preside but cannot vote in one of
The Houses of Parliament?
(a) Speaker
(b) Deputy Speaker
(c) Vice President
(d) Vice Chairman
Answer. (c)
20. Which amendment to the Constitution of
India affirmed the power of the Parliament to
Amend any part of the Constitution including
That relating to Fundamental Rights:
(a) 26th
(b) 25th
(c) 24th
(d) 23rd
Answer. (c)
21. The 38th (Amendment) Act to the Constitution
Of India relates to:
(a) Raising the upper limit of membership Of Lok Sabha
(b) President’s ‘satisfaction’ in declaring Emergency has been made non justiciable
(c) Provision for a Legislative Assembly and Council of minister for Arunachal Pradesh
(d) Sikkim became the 22nd state of the Indian Union
Answer. (b)
22 Under what article of the Constitution of India Can the President take over the administration
Of a State in case its constitutional machinery Breaks down?
(a) Article 83(2)
(b) Article 352
(c) Article 356
(d) Article 343
Answer. (c)
23. How many languages are recognized by the Constitution of India in the 8th Schedule?
(a) 14
(b) 16
(c) 18
(d) 12
Answer. (c)
24. Into how many commands is the Indian army Organized?
(a) Four
(b) Six
(c) Five
(d) Seven
Answer. (b)
25. The oceans cover ...... of the surface of the
Earth:
(a) 50%
(b) 60%
(c) 71%
(d) 80%
(e) 90%
Answer. (c)
Sunday, September 4, 2011
Solved Question Papers, Answer : Probationary Officer Reasoning
Solved Question Papers, Answer : Probationary Officer Reasoning
General intelligence and reasoning solved papers
1. Rearrange the first four letters, in any way, of the word DECISION. Find how many words can be formed by using all the four words.
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) More than three
(e) No meaningful word is formed
Ans. (a)
2. A number of friends decided to go on a picnic and planned to spend Rs 960 on food. Four of them, however, did not turn up. As a consequence, the remaining ones had to contribute Rs 40 each extra. The number of those who attended the picnic was:
(a) 8
(b) 12
(c) 16
(d) 24
Ans. (a)
3. In a caravan, in addition to 50 hens, there are 45 goats and 8 camels with some keepers. If the total number of feet be 224 more than the number of heads in the caravan, find the number of keepers.
(a) 5
(b) 8
(c) 10
(d) 15
Ans. (d)
Directions (Questions 4 and 5): Study the following information and answer the questions given below it:
There is a group of five persons K, G, H, R and J.
(i) K, G and H are intelligent
(ii) K, R and J are hard-working
(iii) R, H and J are honest and
(iv) K, G and J are ambitious
4. Which of the following persons is neither hardworking nor ambitious?
(a) K
(b) G
(c) H
(d) R
(e) None of these
Ans. (c)
5. Which of the following persons is neither honest nor hard working but is ambitious?
(a) K
(b) G
(c) R
(d) H
(e) None of these
Ans. (b)
6. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and Fare sitting in a circle. B is between F and C; A is between E and D; F is to the left of D. Who is between A and F?
(a) B
(b) C
(c) D
(d) A
(e) F
Ans. (c)
7. In a group of cows and hens, the number of legs is 14 more than twice the number of heads. How many cows are in the group?
(a) 5
(b) 7
(c) 11
(d) 12
(e) 9
Ans. (b)
8. If 36 ? 32 = 9623; 25 ? 82 = 8522; 68 ? 75 = 7856, then 47 ? 52 = ?
(a) 5742
(b) 5274
(c) 7427
(d) 5724
(e) 2574
Ans. (d)
9. If 32 ? 41 = 15; 51 ? 34 = 46; 41 ? 52 = 37, then 87 ? 53 = ?
(a) 68
(b) 64
(c) 85
(d) 18
(e) 42
Ans. (d)
10. Which letter occurs most often in the word?
APPROPRIATE
(a) A
(b) E
(c) R
(d) P
Ans. (d)
11. How many independent words can be formed without changing the order of the letters and using each letter only once?
CAPABILITY
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) None
Ans. (b)
12. If it is possible to form a word with the first, fourth, seventh and eleventh letters of the word ‘SUPERFLOUS’, write the first letter of that word. Otherwise, X is the answer.
(a) S
(b) L
(c) O
(d) X
Ans. (d)
Directions (Questions 13 to 16): Each of the following questions is based on the following alphabet series.
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
13. Which letter is eighth to the left of sixteenth letter from the right end?
(a) B
(b) S
(c) C
(d) H
Ans. (c)
14. Which letter is exactly midway between H and S in the given alphabet?
(a) No such letter
(b) L
(c) M
(d) O
Ans. (a)
15. Which letter should be ninth letter to the left of ninth letter from the right, if the first half of the given alphabet is reversed.
(a) D
(b) E
(c) F
(d) I
Ans. (b)
16. If every even letter beginning from B is replaced by odd number starting with 3, which letter/number will be the third to the right of the tenth number/letter counting from your right.
(a) M
(b) S
(c) 11
(d) 21
Ans. (d)
17. Pointing out to a photograph, a man tells his friend, “She is the daughter of the only son of my father’s wife.†How is the girl related to the man in the photograph?
(a) Daughter
(b) Cousin
(c) Mother
(d) Sister
(e) Niece
Ans. (a)
18. Pointing to a man in a photograph, a woman said, “His brother’s father is the only son of my grand father.†How is the woman related to the man in the photograph?
(a) Mother
(b) Aunt
(c) Sister
(d) Daughter
(e) Grand mother
Ans. (c)
19. In a row of students of Ravi's class, Ravi is 17th from either end of the row. How many students are there in his class?
(a) 34
(b) 35
(c) 33
(d) 19
(e) 36
Ans. (c)
20. In a cricket season, India defeated Australia twice, West Indies defeated India twice, Australia defeated West Indies twice, India defeated New Zealand twice and West Indies defeated New Zealand twice which country has lost most number of times?
(a) India
(b) Australia
(c) New Zealand
(d) West Indies
(e) None of these
Ans. (c)
21. Six students A, B, C, D, Band F are sitting in a field. A and B are from Delhi while the rest are from Bangalore. D and F are tall while others are short A, C, Dare girls while others are boys. Which is the tall girl from Bangalore?
(a) C
(b) D
(c) E
(d) F
(e) None of these
Ans. (b)
General intelligence and reasoning solved papers
1. Rearrange the first four letters, in any way, of the word DECISION. Find how many words can be formed by using all the four words.
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) More than three
(e) No meaningful word is formed
Ans. (a)
2. A number of friends decided to go on a picnic and planned to spend Rs 960 on food. Four of them, however, did not turn up. As a consequence, the remaining ones had to contribute Rs 40 each extra. The number of those who attended the picnic was:
(a) 8
(b) 12
(c) 16
(d) 24
Ans. (a)
3. In a caravan, in addition to 50 hens, there are 45 goats and 8 camels with some keepers. If the total number of feet be 224 more than the number of heads in the caravan, find the number of keepers.
(a) 5
(b) 8
(c) 10
(d) 15
Ans. (d)
Directions (Questions 4 and 5): Study the following information and answer the questions given below it:
There is a group of five persons K, G, H, R and J.
(i) K, G and H are intelligent
(ii) K, R and J are hard-working
(iii) R, H and J are honest and
(iv) K, G and J are ambitious
4. Which of the following persons is neither hardworking nor ambitious?
(a) K
(b) G
(c) H
(d) R
(e) None of these
Ans. (c)
5. Which of the following persons is neither honest nor hard working but is ambitious?
(a) K
(b) G
(c) R
(d) H
(e) None of these
Ans. (b)
6. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and Fare sitting in a circle. B is between F and C; A is between E and D; F is to the left of D. Who is between A and F?
(a) B
(b) C
(c) D
(d) A
(e) F
Ans. (c)
7. In a group of cows and hens, the number of legs is 14 more than twice the number of heads. How many cows are in the group?
(a) 5
(b) 7
(c) 11
(d) 12
(e) 9
Ans. (b)
8. If 36 ? 32 = 9623; 25 ? 82 = 8522; 68 ? 75 = 7856, then 47 ? 52 = ?
(a) 5742
(b) 5274
(c) 7427
(d) 5724
(e) 2574
Ans. (d)
9. If 32 ? 41 = 15; 51 ? 34 = 46; 41 ? 52 = 37, then 87 ? 53 = ?
(a) 68
(b) 64
(c) 85
(d) 18
(e) 42
Ans. (d)
10. Which letter occurs most often in the word?
APPROPRIATE
(a) A
(b) E
(c) R
(d) P
Ans. (d)
11. How many independent words can be formed without changing the order of the letters and using each letter only once?
CAPABILITY
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) None
Ans. (b)
12. If it is possible to form a word with the first, fourth, seventh and eleventh letters of the word ‘SUPERFLOUS’, write the first letter of that word. Otherwise, X is the answer.
(a) S
(b) L
(c) O
(d) X
Ans. (d)
Directions (Questions 13 to 16): Each of the following questions is based on the following alphabet series.
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
13. Which letter is eighth to the left of sixteenth letter from the right end?
(a) B
(b) S
(c) C
(d) H
Ans. (c)
14. Which letter is exactly midway between H and S in the given alphabet?
(a) No such letter
(b) L
(c) M
(d) O
Ans. (a)
15. Which letter should be ninth letter to the left of ninth letter from the right, if the first half of the given alphabet is reversed.
(a) D
(b) E
(c) F
(d) I
Ans. (b)
16. If every even letter beginning from B is replaced by odd number starting with 3, which letter/number will be the third to the right of the tenth number/letter counting from your right.
(a) M
(b) S
(c) 11
(d) 21
Ans. (d)
17. Pointing out to a photograph, a man tells his friend, “She is the daughter of the only son of my father’s wife.†How is the girl related to the man in the photograph?
(a) Daughter
(b) Cousin
(c) Mother
(d) Sister
(e) Niece
Ans. (a)
18. Pointing to a man in a photograph, a woman said, “His brother’s father is the only son of my grand father.†How is the woman related to the man in the photograph?
(a) Mother
(b) Aunt
(c) Sister
(d) Daughter
(e) Grand mother
Ans. (c)
19. In a row of students of Ravi's class, Ravi is 17th from either end of the row. How many students are there in his class?
(a) 34
(b) 35
(c) 33
(d) 19
(e) 36
Ans. (c)
20. In a cricket season, India defeated Australia twice, West Indies defeated India twice, Australia defeated West Indies twice, India defeated New Zealand twice and West Indies defeated New Zealand twice which country has lost most number of times?
(a) India
(b) Australia
(c) New Zealand
(d) West Indies
(e) None of these
Ans. (c)
21. Six students A, B, C, D, Band F are sitting in a field. A and B are from Delhi while the rest are from Bangalore. D and F are tall while others are short A, C, Dare girls while others are boys. Which is the tall girl from Bangalore?
(a) C
(b) D
(c) E
(d) F
(e) None of these
Ans. (b)
UGC NET Solved Model paper Music
UGC NET Solved Model paper Music
Sample Questions papers of competitive exams of india:Music
1. Andolan Sankhya of Pancham is?
(A) 240
(C) 320
(B)270
(D)360
2. The Book written by Pt.Damodar
(A) Sadrag Chandrodaya
(B) Sangeetraj
(C) Sangeet Ratnakar
(D) Sangeet Parijat
3. According to Modern Shruti Swara division, Pancham is placed on which Shruti?
(A)9th
(B) 10th
(C)11th
(D) 13th
4. Musician of Maihar Gharana
(A) Ustad Vilayat Khan
(B) Ustad Halim Zaffar Khan
(C) Ustad Alialcbar Khan
(D) Ustad Mushtak Au Khan
5. Author of Abhinav Bharti
(A) Bharat
(B) Dattil
(C) Abhinavgupta
(D) Kallinath
6. Author of Rag-Darpan
(A) Dr. Mahesh Saxena
(B) Pt. Omkar Nath Thakur
(C) Fakirullah
(D) Bharat
7. The views of Bhattnayak on Rasa is called?
(A) Uttpathivad
(B) Anukritivad
(C) Muktivad
(D) Abhivyaktivad
8. No. of Sanchari Bhava?
(A)23
(B) 13
(C)33
(D) 43
9. Chittasvaras interspersed with Jatis?
(A) Tillana
(B) Chitta Tanam
(C) Sollukettu
(D) Jatisvaram
10. Pann Panchamam corresponds to?
(A) Ahiri Raga
(B) Hindolam
(C) Malahari Raga
(D) Ehairavi
11. Author of Sangita Chandrika?
(A) Ahobala
(B) Attoor Krishna Pisharati
(C) Muttath Bhagavatar
(D) Damodara Misra
12. Mattakokila is an ancient?
(A)Venu
(B) Vina
(C)Yazh
(D) Drum
13. 2009 Padmasri awardee in Mizhavu
(A) Naryanan Namboothiri
(B) Madhava Chakyar
(C) Kalamandalam Gopi
(D) Kochu Govindan Pillai
14. Use of Rishabh in Pooriya Kalyan?
(A) Like Marwa
(B) Like Pooriya
(C) Like Poorvi
(D) Like Kalyan
15. Assertion and Reasoning— Assertion (A) : Any Art is recognised as full of aesthetics when the artist is successful in conveying
his expressions to the viewers! listeners through the medium brush, colours, words and sound.
Reasoning (R): Harmony bet ween the emotions of artist and receiver is desirable.
(A)(A) is true, but (R) is false
(B)(A) is false, but (R) is true
(C)Both (A) and (R) are true
(D)Both (A) and (R) are false
16. How many Alankaras have been described by Sharahgdeo?
(A)12
(B) 25
(C)63
(D) 13
17. The author of ‘Saundarya, Rasa Avam Sarigit’.
(A) Prof. Premlata Sharma
,(B) Dr. Aban Mistry
(C) Prof. Swatantra Sharma
(D) Prof. Pankaj Mala Sharma
18. ‘Aavap’ is a
(A) Sa-shabda Kriya
(B) Nishabda Kriya
(C) Prati Kriya
(D) Male Kriya
19. Match the following—
List-I
(a) Zakir Hussain
(b) Vikku Vinayak Ram
(c) Paighat Mani Ayyer
(d) Pagal Das
List-II
1. Mridangam
2. Ghatam
3. Pakhwaj
4. Tabla
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 4 2 1 3
20. Tabla artist of Farukkhabad Gharana?
(A)Ustad Ileus Hussain
(B)Pt. Sheetal Prasad Mishra
(C)Prof. Mukund Bhale
(D)Ustad Mohammad Akaram
21. Arrange them in chronological order according to time period.
Codes:
(A) Sharangdeo, Bharat, Jaidev,Matang
(B) Bharat, Matang, Jaidev,Sharangdeo
(C) Matang, Jaidev, Sharangdeo,Bharat
(D) Jaidev, Bharat, Matang,Sharangdeo
22. This is helpful in invoking Ehavas—
(A) Anubhav
(B) Uddipan
(C) Alamban
(D) Bibhav
23. Match the following—
List-I
(a) Pt. V. C. Jog
(b) Chitti Babu
(c) U. Amajad Au
(d) U. Latteef Ahmed
List-II
1. Veena Player
2. Violin Player
3. Tabla Player
4. Sarod Player
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 1 2 3 4
24. First musician felicitated with ‘Bharat Ratna’.
(A) Pt. Ravishankar
(B)Lata Mangeshkar
(C)M. S. Subbalakshmi
(D)Pt. Bhimsen Joshi
25. The propounder of Rasa
Theory
(A)Matang
(B) Bharat
(C)Ahobal
(D) Srinivas
Answers :
1 D
2 B
3 D
4 C
5 C
6 C
7 C
8 C
9 B
10 D
11 D
12 B
13 C
14 A
15 C
16 C
17 A
18 A
19 D
20 A
21 B
22 D
23 A
24 C
25 B
Sample Questions papers of competitive exams of india:Music
1. Andolan Sankhya of Pancham is?
(A) 240
(C) 320
(B)270
(D)360
2. The Book written by Pt.Damodar
(A) Sadrag Chandrodaya
(B) Sangeetraj
(C) Sangeet Ratnakar
(D) Sangeet Parijat
3. According to Modern Shruti Swara division, Pancham is placed on which Shruti?
(A)9th
(B) 10th
(C)11th
(D) 13th
4. Musician of Maihar Gharana
(A) Ustad Vilayat Khan
(B) Ustad Halim Zaffar Khan
(C) Ustad Alialcbar Khan
(D) Ustad Mushtak Au Khan
5. Author of Abhinav Bharti
(A) Bharat
(B) Dattil
(C) Abhinavgupta
(D) Kallinath
6. Author of Rag-Darpan
(A) Dr. Mahesh Saxena
(B) Pt. Omkar Nath Thakur
(C) Fakirullah
(D) Bharat
7. The views of Bhattnayak on Rasa is called?
(A) Uttpathivad
(B) Anukritivad
(C) Muktivad
(D) Abhivyaktivad
8. No. of Sanchari Bhava?
(A)23
(B) 13
(C)33
(D) 43
9. Chittasvaras interspersed with Jatis?
(A) Tillana
(B) Chitta Tanam
(C) Sollukettu
(D) Jatisvaram
10. Pann Panchamam corresponds to?
(A) Ahiri Raga
(B) Hindolam
(C) Malahari Raga
(D) Ehairavi
11. Author of Sangita Chandrika?
(A) Ahobala
(B) Attoor Krishna Pisharati
(C) Muttath Bhagavatar
(D) Damodara Misra
12. Mattakokila is an ancient?
(A)Venu
(B) Vina
(C)Yazh
(D) Drum
13. 2009 Padmasri awardee in Mizhavu
(A) Naryanan Namboothiri
(B) Madhava Chakyar
(C) Kalamandalam Gopi
(D) Kochu Govindan Pillai
14. Use of Rishabh in Pooriya Kalyan?
(A) Like Marwa
(B) Like Pooriya
(C) Like Poorvi
(D) Like Kalyan
15. Assertion and Reasoning— Assertion (A) : Any Art is recognised as full of aesthetics when the artist is successful in conveying
his expressions to the viewers! listeners through the medium brush, colours, words and sound.
Reasoning (R): Harmony bet ween the emotions of artist and receiver is desirable.
(A)(A) is true, but (R) is false
(B)(A) is false, but (R) is true
(C)Both (A) and (R) are true
(D)Both (A) and (R) are false
16. How many Alankaras have been described by Sharahgdeo?
(A)12
(B) 25
(C)63
(D) 13
17. The author of ‘Saundarya, Rasa Avam Sarigit’.
(A) Prof. Premlata Sharma
,(B) Dr. Aban Mistry
(C) Prof. Swatantra Sharma
(D) Prof. Pankaj Mala Sharma
18. ‘Aavap’ is a
(A) Sa-shabda Kriya
(B) Nishabda Kriya
(C) Prati Kriya
(D) Male Kriya
19. Match the following—
List-I
(a) Zakir Hussain
(b) Vikku Vinayak Ram
(c) Paighat Mani Ayyer
(d) Pagal Das
List-II
1. Mridangam
2. Ghatam
3. Pakhwaj
4. Tabla
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 4 2 1 3
20. Tabla artist of Farukkhabad Gharana?
(A)Ustad Ileus Hussain
(B)Pt. Sheetal Prasad Mishra
(C)Prof. Mukund Bhale
(D)Ustad Mohammad Akaram
21. Arrange them in chronological order according to time period.
Codes:
(A) Sharangdeo, Bharat, Jaidev,Matang
(B) Bharat, Matang, Jaidev,Sharangdeo
(C) Matang, Jaidev, Sharangdeo,Bharat
(D) Jaidev, Bharat, Matang,Sharangdeo
22. This is helpful in invoking Ehavas—
(A) Anubhav
(B) Uddipan
(C) Alamban
(D) Bibhav
23. Match the following—
List-I
(a) Pt. V. C. Jog
(b) Chitti Babu
(c) U. Amajad Au
(d) U. Latteef Ahmed
List-II
1. Veena Player
2. Violin Player
3. Tabla Player
4. Sarod Player
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 1 2 3 4
24. First musician felicitated with ‘Bharat Ratna’.
(A) Pt. Ravishankar
(B)Lata Mangeshkar
(C)M. S. Subbalakshmi
(D)Pt. Bhimsen Joshi
25. The propounder of Rasa
Theory
(A)Matang
(B) Bharat
(C)Ahobal
(D) Srinivas
Answers :
1 D
2 B
3 D
4 C
5 C
6 C
7 C
8 C
9 B
10 D
11 D
12 B
13 C
14 A
15 C
16 C
17 A
18 A
19 D
20 A
21 B
22 D
23 A
24 C
25 B
Home Science Objective Test Paper
Home Science Objective Test Paper
home science exam solved questions Free online mcq
1. What can excess of protein intake lead to?
(a) A feeling of wanting to eat more
(b) Vitamin A deficiency
(c) More calcium being excreted
(d) Constipation
2. Which enzyme does hydrochloric acid activate?
(a) Rennin
(b) Lactase
(c) Trypsin
(d) Pepsin
3. What is mitosis?
(a) The covering around the cell
(b) The protection against UV light
(c) The elimination of toxins from the.
(d) .The multiplication of cells
4. What is neuralgia?
(a) Shooting pains along the course of a nerve
(b) Pain down the back and outside of the thigh
(c) Disease of the basal ganglia
(d) Paralysis or weakness of one side of the face
5. Eversion is
(a) Moving the side of the sole of the foot outwards
(b) Pointing the toes upwards
(c) Pointing the toes downwards
(d) Moving the side of the sole of the foot inwards
6. How long should a cool down in an absolute beginners class be?
(a) 5 minutes
(b) 10 minutes
(c) 15 minutes
(d) 20 minutes
7. What is the cause of stretch marks?
(a) Loss of elasticity in the epidermis
(b) Loss of elasticity in the dermis
(c) Loss of elasticity in the subcutaneous layer
(d) Loss of elasticity in the muscles near the skin’s surface
8. The typical daily s intake is
(a) 1-3 gm
(b) 3-5 gm
(c) 6-9 gm
(d) 11-14 gm
9. If a person. habitually consumes 10 tablets a ay of vitamin-mineral supplements, which nutrient is least likely to cause toxicity?
(a) Vitamin E
(b) Vitamin A
(c) Vitamin D
(d) Iron
10. The number of kilocalories in one gram of fat is
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 7
(d) 9
11. Essential amino acids are
(a) composed entirely of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms
(b) synthesized by the body during metabolism
(c) in all protein foods of low biological value
(d) in all protein foods of high biological value
12. Polysaccharides are
(a) composed of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen atoms
(b) sweet-tasting, and contain one glucose and one fructose molecule
(c) the most complex group of carbohydrates, and include starch and dextrin
(d) difficult to digest, and so contribute little to energy stores
13. Malnutrition occurs when
(a) a child’s diet is lacking in protein
(b) energy intake is below the minimum required to maintain a healthy body
(c) there is an imbalance of the essential nutrients required to maintain a healthy body
(d) energy intake exceeds the body’s energy needs
14. Levels of cholesterol in the blood can be lowered by a diet that contains
(a) polyunsaturated fats
(b) low-density lipoproteins
(c) saturated fats
(d) trans fatty acids
15. In experiment an egg-white is heated in a test-tube, held in a beaker of boiling water. The result is an opaque white solid. The experiment demonstrates
(a) the coagulation of proteins
(b) the catabolism of essential amino acids
(c) acid and alkali reactions in food
(d) gelatinization
16. A person with coeliac disease should avoid eating
(a) rice and stir-fried vegetables
(b) fresh fruit salad and ice-cream
(c) tacos and mince
(d) cheese and whole meal bread sandwiches
17. Milk contains approximately what percent water?
(a) 96%
(b) 2.87%
(c) 80%
(d) 75%
18. Which naturally occurring ingredient causes enigmatic browning in fruits and vegetables?
(a) Piper dine
(b) Cycasin
(c) Tannins
(d) Citric Acid
19. Why should you be concerned about excessive use of black pepper?
(a) It can cause hallucinations
(b) It can cause a change in genetic material
(c) It contains LD 50
(d) It can become a strong carcinogen
20. Which of the following vitamins must be declared first on a nutritional label
for a food product?
(a) Vitamin C
(b) Vitamin A
(c) Vitamin D
(d) Vitamin E
21. Preservatives can be added to bakery products to prevent or retard mold growth, which of the following is Not one of those preservatives?
(a) Potassium sorbate
(b) Sodium benzoate
(c) Sodium bicarbonate
(d) Sodium proprionate
22. Food containers that are absolutely impermeable to gases and vapours are referred to as __________
(a) laminates
(b) hermetic
(c) aseptic
(d) edible
23........... is a basic substance found in parts of plants. They usually - taste bitter and are often used as active principles in drugs.
(a) Chlorophyll
(b) Catalase
(c) Alkaloid
(d) Teratogens
24. What occurs when a food is eaten that contains parasites.
(a) Toxin-mediated food borne infection
(b) Food borne intoxication
(c) Food borne infection
(d) Food borne infestation
25. which process is a result of absorption by polar molecules?
(a) Microwaves
(b) Irradiation
(c) Fermentation
(d) Boiling
Answers :
1 b
2 d
3 d
4 a
5 a
6 b
7 b
8 c
9 b
10 d
11 d
12 c
13 b
14 d
15 a
16 a
17 c
18 c
19 d
20 b
21 c
22 b
23 b
24 d
25 a
home science exam solved questions Free online mcq
1. What can excess of protein intake lead to?
(a) A feeling of wanting to eat more
(b) Vitamin A deficiency
(c) More calcium being excreted
(d) Constipation
2. Which enzyme does hydrochloric acid activate?
(a) Rennin
(b) Lactase
(c) Trypsin
(d) Pepsin
3. What is mitosis?
(a) The covering around the cell
(b) The protection against UV light
(c) The elimination of toxins from the.
(d) .The multiplication of cells
4. What is neuralgia?
(a) Shooting pains along the course of a nerve
(b) Pain down the back and outside of the thigh
(c) Disease of the basal ganglia
(d) Paralysis or weakness of one side of the face
5. Eversion is
(a) Moving the side of the sole of the foot outwards
(b) Pointing the toes upwards
(c) Pointing the toes downwards
(d) Moving the side of the sole of the foot inwards
6. How long should a cool down in an absolute beginners class be?
(a) 5 minutes
(b) 10 minutes
(c) 15 minutes
(d) 20 minutes
7. What is the cause of stretch marks?
(a) Loss of elasticity in the epidermis
(b) Loss of elasticity in the dermis
(c) Loss of elasticity in the subcutaneous layer
(d) Loss of elasticity in the muscles near the skin’s surface
8. The typical daily s intake is
(a) 1-3 gm
(b) 3-5 gm
(c) 6-9 gm
(d) 11-14 gm
9. If a person. habitually consumes 10 tablets a ay of vitamin-mineral supplements, which nutrient is least likely to cause toxicity?
(a) Vitamin E
(b) Vitamin A
(c) Vitamin D
(d) Iron
10. The number of kilocalories in one gram of fat is
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 7
(d) 9
11. Essential amino acids are
(a) composed entirely of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms
(b) synthesized by the body during metabolism
(c) in all protein foods of low biological value
(d) in all protein foods of high biological value
12. Polysaccharides are
(a) composed of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen atoms
(b) sweet-tasting, and contain one glucose and one fructose molecule
(c) the most complex group of carbohydrates, and include starch and dextrin
(d) difficult to digest, and so contribute little to energy stores
13. Malnutrition occurs when
(a) a child’s diet is lacking in protein
(b) energy intake is below the minimum required to maintain a healthy body
(c) there is an imbalance of the essential nutrients required to maintain a healthy body
(d) energy intake exceeds the body’s energy needs
14. Levels of cholesterol in the blood can be lowered by a diet that contains
(a) polyunsaturated fats
(b) low-density lipoproteins
(c) saturated fats
(d) trans fatty acids
15. In experiment an egg-white is heated in a test-tube, held in a beaker of boiling water. The result is an opaque white solid. The experiment demonstrates
(a) the coagulation of proteins
(b) the catabolism of essential amino acids
(c) acid and alkali reactions in food
(d) gelatinization
16. A person with coeliac disease should avoid eating
(a) rice and stir-fried vegetables
(b) fresh fruit salad and ice-cream
(c) tacos and mince
(d) cheese and whole meal bread sandwiches
17. Milk contains approximately what percent water?
(a) 96%
(b) 2.87%
(c) 80%
(d) 75%
18. Which naturally occurring ingredient causes enigmatic browning in fruits and vegetables?
(a) Piper dine
(b) Cycasin
(c) Tannins
(d) Citric Acid
19. Why should you be concerned about excessive use of black pepper?
(a) It can cause hallucinations
(b) It can cause a change in genetic material
(c) It contains LD 50
(d) It can become a strong carcinogen
20. Which of the following vitamins must be declared first on a nutritional label
for a food product?
(a) Vitamin C
(b) Vitamin A
(c) Vitamin D
(d) Vitamin E
21. Preservatives can be added to bakery products to prevent or retard mold growth, which of the following is Not one of those preservatives?
(a) Potassium sorbate
(b) Sodium benzoate
(c) Sodium bicarbonate
(d) Sodium proprionate
22. Food containers that are absolutely impermeable to gases and vapours are referred to as __________
(a) laminates
(b) hermetic
(c) aseptic
(d) edible
23........... is a basic substance found in parts of plants. They usually - taste bitter and are often used as active principles in drugs.
(a) Chlorophyll
(b) Catalase
(c) Alkaloid
(d) Teratogens
24. What occurs when a food is eaten that contains parasites.
(a) Toxin-mediated food borne infection
(b) Food borne intoxication
(c) Food borne infection
(d) Food borne infestation
25. which process is a result of absorption by polar molecules?
(a) Microwaves
(b) Irradiation
(c) Fermentation
(d) Boiling
Answers :
1 b
2 d
3 d
4 a
5 a
6 b
7 b
8 c
9 b
10 d
11 d
12 c
13 b
14 d
15 a
16 a
17 c
18 c
19 d
20 b
21 c
22 b
23 b
24 d
25 a
Free General Knowledge Practice Test
Free General Knowledge Practice Test
Free Basic Current General Knowledge Online Practice Test
1. Between 1950 and 2007 the population increased by about 2 times. What was the increase in food grains production between those years ? About—
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 4
(E) 5
2. Carpet weaving is a very prominent micro / small industry in
Which of the following areas?
(A) Bhopal (Madhya Pradesh)
(B) Agra (Uttar Pradesh)
(C) Nasik (Maharashtra)
(D) Bhadohi (Uttar Pradesh)
(E) Ahmedabad (Gujarat)
3. Milk cooperatives have been very successful in which of the following states in India?
(A)Odisha
(B) West Bengal
(C)Assam
(D) Kerala
(E)Gujarat
4. India’s total area under cultivation is one of the highest in the world. How much of its total area is under cultivation?
(A)30%
(B) 35%
(C)45%
(D) 40%
(E) More than 50%
5. Many times we read about Doha Round of discussion associated with the meetings of the World Trade Organisation (WTO). What exactly was the main issue in Doha Round of discussion due to which it appeared frequently in press?
1. Subsidy to agro products by rich nations.
2. Limit of Foreign Direct Investment in commercial ventures in developing nations.
3. Migration of skilled and trained labour force from poor to rich nations.
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only2
(C) Only 1
(D) Only 2 and 3
(E) All l, 2 and 3
6. Growing of which of the following crops comparatively needs
lot of water?
1. Jowar
2. Paddy
3. Groundnut
(A)
(B)
Only 1 Only 2
7. India’s top agricultural scientist and one of the architects of India’s Green Revolution Dr. M. S. Swami Nathan has warned that the country could face a food crisis, if agricultural productivity is not increased and farming is neglected. Which of the following is/are some of the measures which will directly or indirectly help in better food security in India?
1. reducing the use of pesticides and chemical fertilize
2. Creating a network of advanced soil testing laboratories.
3. The flow of credit to small and marginal farmers should be made hassle free and speedy.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1,2and3
(E) Only2and3
8. The workers employed under Mahatma Gandhi Rural Employment Guarantee Act are engaged in which of the following developmental projects?
1. Construction of 12 lakhs km. countrywide optic fibre net work line.
2. Construction of Metro ‘net work in Mumbai and Hyderabad.
3. Cleaning of the recent oil spill at the coastal areas of Mumbai / Goa caused by the collision of two oil tankers.
(A) Only 2
Only 1 Only 3
All 1, 2 and 3
(E) Only land2
9. Which of the following organisations has become an example of the great success of micro- financing in the world?
(A) Doha Bank
(B) Grameen Bank
(C) Habib Bank Ltd.
(D) RAK Bank
(E) None of these
10. Which of the following schemes of the Govt. of India is being restructured as National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM)?
(A) Swarnjayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY)
(B) Prime Minister Rozgar Yojana (PMRY)
(C) Grameen Rozgar Yojana (GRY)
(D) Training of Rural Youth for Self Employment (TRYSEM)
11. ‘Pisciculture’ is not a very common activity in—
(A) West Bengal
(B) Kerala ‘(C) Goa
(D) Maharashtra
(E) Rajasthan
12. Production of silk for commercial purposes is known as—
(A) Palmology
(B) Horticulture
(C) Sericulture
(D) Aquaculture
(E) None of these
13. India is not a self-dependent Country in the production of—
(A)Wheat
(B) Rice
(C) Crude Oil
(D) Sugar
(E) Vegetables
14. Which of the following were the main recommendations of the Justice Ranganath Mishra Commission on Minorities?
1. At least 10 per cent jobs should be reserved for Muslims and 5 per cent for other minorities in Central and State Govt. jobs in all cadres and grades.
2. Delink SC status from Religion and abrogation of 1950 scheduled caste order.
3. At least 20 seats should be reserved for minorities in the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only
(D) All 1,2and3
(E) Only l and 2
15. Yellow Revolution in India is associated with the production
of—
(A) Egg
(B) Oil seeds
(C) Fruits
(D) Vegetables
(E) Gold
16. Which of the following is are true about the National Food Security Act Bill, cleared by the group of ministers recently?
1. Bill envisages that 25 kg. of food grain to be given to the poor at a price of Rs. 3 perkg.
2. Only those who are employed under any rural Employment scheme of the Govt. of India, will be eligible to take advantage of the same.
3. It will be mandatory for the beneficiaries to work at least 40 hours in a week under any rural development scheme of the Govt. of India to get benefit of the same.
The food grain given to them will be a part of the wages given to them.
(A) Only 3
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 1
(D) Only I and 2
(E) All 1,2 and 3
17. Who amongst the following is popularly known as the Milkman of India?
(A) Medha Patekar
(B) Sundarlal Bahuguna
(C) Mahendra Singh Tikait
(D) Sudha Murthy
(E) Verghese Kurian
18. Cooperative movement in Sugar production in which of the following states in India has been very successful?
(A) Arunachal Pradesh
(B) Jammu and Kashmir
(C) West Bengal (D) Rajasthan
(E) Maharashtra
19. In a fast developing economy like ours which of the following will show fastest growth?
(A) Manufacturing
(B) Service Sector
(C) Infrastructure
(D) Agriculture
(El Ancillaries
20. In economic theory the social welfare and the economic welfare are described in a way that the two are termed as—
(A) Two independent factors
(B) partially related to each other
(C) Synonymous of each other
(D) one as sub-set of the other
(E) None of these
21. In ‘Balance of Payment’ calculations for the country, the current account balance means—
(A) Export less imports
(B) Imports only
(C) Trade balance plus capital account balance
(D) Cost of domestic production plus production for exports
(E) None of these
22. Which of the .following is not a feature of a fast growing economy?
1. Equal Input-Equal growth
2. Double Digit Inflation
3. Production being used for
Self Consumption
(A)Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
23. In Govt. budget when we com pare revenue and fiscal deficit, we find that Fiscal Deficit is—
(A) Always less
(B) Always more
(C) Sometimes more sometimes less
(D) Occasionally equal
(E) Cannot be predicted
24. How much amount has the Govt. of India allocated to set up a National Security Fund for workers in unorganized sector?
(A) Rs. 500 crore
(B) Rs. 750 crore
(C) Rs. 1,000 crore
(D) Rs. 1,050 crore
(E) None of these
25. The Govt. of India recently decided to use satellite driven Global Positioning System (GPS)
to ensure food security for all. How will this help the authorities?
1. It will reduce pilferage and diversion of food grains to open markets.
2. It will help in monitoring the movement of every bag of wheat and rice received in the godowns or PDS shops.
3. It will help in tracking of vehicles carrying food grains to ensure their safe arrival to designated place,.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Answers:
1 D
2 D
3 E
4 E
5 A
6 B
7 D
8 E
9 B
10 A
11 D
12 C
13 C
14 E
15 B
16 E
17 E
18 E
19 C
20 D
21 C
22 A
23 B
24 C
25 E
Free Basic Current General Knowledge Online Practice Test
1. Between 1950 and 2007 the population increased by about 2 times. What was the increase in food grains production between those years ? About—
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 4
(E) 5
2. Carpet weaving is a very prominent micro / small industry in
Which of the following areas?
(A) Bhopal (Madhya Pradesh)
(B) Agra (Uttar Pradesh)
(C) Nasik (Maharashtra)
(D) Bhadohi (Uttar Pradesh)
(E) Ahmedabad (Gujarat)
3. Milk cooperatives have been very successful in which of the following states in India?
(A)Odisha
(B) West Bengal
(C)Assam
(D) Kerala
(E)Gujarat
4. India’s total area under cultivation is one of the highest in the world. How much of its total area is under cultivation?
(A)30%
(B) 35%
(C)45%
(D) 40%
(E) More than 50%
5. Many times we read about Doha Round of discussion associated with the meetings of the World Trade Organisation (WTO). What exactly was the main issue in Doha Round of discussion due to which it appeared frequently in press?
1. Subsidy to agro products by rich nations.
2. Limit of Foreign Direct Investment in commercial ventures in developing nations.
3. Migration of skilled and trained labour force from poor to rich nations.
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only2
(C) Only 1
(D) Only 2 and 3
(E) All l, 2 and 3
6. Growing of which of the following crops comparatively needs
lot of water?
1. Jowar
2. Paddy
3. Groundnut
(A)
(B)
Only 1 Only 2
7. India’s top agricultural scientist and one of the architects of India’s Green Revolution Dr. M. S. Swami Nathan has warned that the country could face a food crisis, if agricultural productivity is not increased and farming is neglected. Which of the following is/are some of the measures which will directly or indirectly help in better food security in India?
1. reducing the use of pesticides and chemical fertilize
2. Creating a network of advanced soil testing laboratories.
3. The flow of credit to small and marginal farmers should be made hassle free and speedy.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1,2and3
(E) Only2and3
8. The workers employed under Mahatma Gandhi Rural Employment Guarantee Act are engaged in which of the following developmental projects?
1. Construction of 12 lakhs km. countrywide optic fibre net work line.
2. Construction of Metro ‘net work in Mumbai and Hyderabad.
3. Cleaning of the recent oil spill at the coastal areas of Mumbai / Goa caused by the collision of two oil tankers.
(A) Only 2
Only 1 Only 3
All 1, 2 and 3
(E) Only land2
9. Which of the following organisations has become an example of the great success of micro- financing in the world?
(A) Doha Bank
(B) Grameen Bank
(C) Habib Bank Ltd.
(D) RAK Bank
(E) None of these
10. Which of the following schemes of the Govt. of India is being restructured as National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM)?
(A) Swarnjayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY)
(B) Prime Minister Rozgar Yojana (PMRY)
(C) Grameen Rozgar Yojana (GRY)
(D) Training of Rural Youth for Self Employment (TRYSEM)
11. ‘Pisciculture’ is not a very common activity in—
(A) West Bengal
(B) Kerala ‘(C) Goa
(D) Maharashtra
(E) Rajasthan
12. Production of silk for commercial purposes is known as—
(A) Palmology
(B) Horticulture
(C) Sericulture
(D) Aquaculture
(E) None of these
13. India is not a self-dependent Country in the production of—
(A)Wheat
(B) Rice
(C) Crude Oil
(D) Sugar
(E) Vegetables
14. Which of the following were the main recommendations of the Justice Ranganath Mishra Commission on Minorities?
1. At least 10 per cent jobs should be reserved for Muslims and 5 per cent for other minorities in Central and State Govt. jobs in all cadres and grades.
2. Delink SC status from Religion and abrogation of 1950 scheduled caste order.
3. At least 20 seats should be reserved for minorities in the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only
(D) All 1,2and3
(E) Only l and 2
15. Yellow Revolution in India is associated with the production
of—
(A) Egg
(B) Oil seeds
(C) Fruits
(D) Vegetables
(E) Gold
16. Which of the following is are true about the National Food Security Act Bill, cleared by the group of ministers recently?
1. Bill envisages that 25 kg. of food grain to be given to the poor at a price of Rs. 3 perkg.
2. Only those who are employed under any rural Employment scheme of the Govt. of India, will be eligible to take advantage of the same.
3. It will be mandatory for the beneficiaries to work at least 40 hours in a week under any rural development scheme of the Govt. of India to get benefit of the same.
The food grain given to them will be a part of the wages given to them.
(A) Only 3
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 1
(D) Only I and 2
(E) All 1,2 and 3
17. Who amongst the following is popularly known as the Milkman of India?
(A) Medha Patekar
(B) Sundarlal Bahuguna
(C) Mahendra Singh Tikait
(D) Sudha Murthy
(E) Verghese Kurian
18. Cooperative movement in Sugar production in which of the following states in India has been very successful?
(A) Arunachal Pradesh
(B) Jammu and Kashmir
(C) West Bengal (D) Rajasthan
(E) Maharashtra
19. In a fast developing economy like ours which of the following will show fastest growth?
(A) Manufacturing
(B) Service Sector
(C) Infrastructure
(D) Agriculture
(El Ancillaries
20. In economic theory the social welfare and the economic welfare are described in a way that the two are termed as—
(A) Two independent factors
(B) partially related to each other
(C) Synonymous of each other
(D) one as sub-set of the other
(E) None of these
21. In ‘Balance of Payment’ calculations for the country, the current account balance means—
(A) Export less imports
(B) Imports only
(C) Trade balance plus capital account balance
(D) Cost of domestic production plus production for exports
(E) None of these
22. Which of the .following is not a feature of a fast growing economy?
1. Equal Input-Equal growth
2. Double Digit Inflation
3. Production being used for
Self Consumption
(A)Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
23. In Govt. budget when we com pare revenue and fiscal deficit, we find that Fiscal Deficit is—
(A) Always less
(B) Always more
(C) Sometimes more sometimes less
(D) Occasionally equal
(E) Cannot be predicted
24. How much amount has the Govt. of India allocated to set up a National Security Fund for workers in unorganized sector?
(A) Rs. 500 crore
(B) Rs. 750 crore
(C) Rs. 1,000 crore
(D) Rs. 1,050 crore
(E) None of these
25. The Govt. of India recently decided to use satellite driven Global Positioning System (GPS)
to ensure food security for all. How will this help the authorities?
1. It will reduce pilferage and diversion of food grains to open markets.
2. It will help in monitoring the movement of every bag of wheat and rice received in the godowns or PDS shops.
3. It will help in tracking of vehicles carrying food grains to ensure their safe arrival to designated place,.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Answers:
1 D
2 D
3 E
4 E
5 A
6 B
7 D
8 E
9 B
10 A
11 D
12 C
13 C
14 E
15 B
16 E
17 E
18 E
19 C
20 D
21 C
22 A
23 B
24 C
25 E
NDA exam Sample questions Geometry maths
NDA exam Sample questions Geometry maths
NDA Entrance Exam Solved Question Paper
1. The point O lies inside a triangle PQR such that ?OPQ, ?OQR and ?ORP are
equal in area. Then, the point O is called as
(a) incentre
(b) centroid
(c) circumcentre
(d) orthocentre
Ans. (b)
2. In ?ABC, O is the orthocentre and BOC = 2 A, then the magnitude of BOC is
equal to
(a) 120°
(b) 100°
(c) 80°
(d) 60°
Ans. (a)
3. ABC is a triangle whose sides BC and CA ate produced to D and E respectively. If
DCA = 108°, EAB = 124°, then the value of ABC is
(a) 72°
(b) 56°
(d) 1500
Ans. (c)
4. ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral in which AD is the diameter and BCD = 125°, then
the measure of ADB is
(a) 72°
(b) 45°
(c) 55°
(d) 65°
Ans. (a)
5. AD is the bisector of A of ?ABC, AC = 4.2 cm, DC = 6 cm, BC = 10 cm, then AB is
(a) 2.8 cm
(b) 3 cm
(c) 3.5 cm
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
6. If O is the orthocentre of the ?ABC, then
(a) BOC = 2 BAC
(b) BOC and BAC are supplementary
(c) BOC= BAC
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
7. In ?ABC, D, E and F are the mid points of the sides BC, CA and AB respectively.
The area of ?ABC is 24 cm2, then the area of ?DEF is
(a) 7 cm2
(b) 6 cm2
(c) 18 cm2
(d) 16 cm2
Ans. (b)
8. In a parallelogram PQRS, PQ = 4.5 cm, PR =6 cm, QS = 7.8 cm and the diagonals
PR and QS intersect each other at O, then to draw a parallelogram we have to draw
first
(a) ?PQR
(b) ?ROS
(c) ?QOR
(d) ?PRS
Ans. (b)
9. In the trapezium PQRS, PQ is parallel to RS and the diagonals intersect at O. If OP .
SR = m(OR . PQ), then the value of m is
(a) 1/4
(b) 1/3
(c) 1
(d) 1/2
Ans. (c)
10. In a parallelogram PQRS, X is the mid point of PS and Y is the mid point of QR,
then XY divides QS in the ratio of
(a) 1 : 4
(b) 1 : 1
(c) 1 : 2
(d) 1 : 3
Ans. (b)
11. The minimum number of dimensions needed to construct a rectangle is
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Ans. (a)
12. ABC is right angled triangle with BP as the perpendicular to the hypotenuse. The
ratio AB : AC is equal to
(a) 2 : 3
(b) BP : BC
(c) BP2 : BC2
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
13. The triangle ABC has AB = 5 cm, AC = 8 cm and BC = 9 cm, then ?ABC is
(a) obtuse angled
(b) not obtuse angled
(c) right angled
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
14. A rectangle PQRS is inscribed in a quadrant of a circle, with P at the centre and R
on the circumference. If PS is 12 cm and PQ is 5 cm, then the diameter of the circle
is
(a) 26 cm
(b) 29 cm
(c) 28 cm
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
15. In a right angled triangle, if one angle is 30 then the side opposite to it is
(a) one third of the base
(b) half of the hypotenuse
(c) one fourth of the hypotenuse
(d) one sixth of the hypotenuse
Ans. (b)
16. A circle is divided into 12 equal parts. The number of degrees in each arc is
(a) 60°
(b) 30°
(c) 45°
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
17. The figure formed by joining the mid points of the sides of a quadrilateral is a
(a) trapezium
(b) rhombus
(c) parallelogram
(d) rectangle
Ans. (c)
18. If a pair of opposite angles of a quadrilateral are supplementary, the quadrilateral is
a
(a) cyclic
(b) parallelogram
(c) rectangle
(d) rhombus
Ans. (a)
19. A pair of opposite sides of a cyclic quadrilateral are equal. Which one is true?
(a) Its diagonals are equal.
(b) It is a rhombus
(c) It is a parallelogram.
(d) All of these
Ans. (a)
20. The sum of the angles in four segments exterior to a cyclic quadrilateral is equal to
(a) 350°
(b) 450°
(c) 540°
(d) 180°
Ans. (c)
NDA Entrance Exam Solved Question Paper
1. The point O lies inside a triangle PQR such that ?OPQ, ?OQR and ?ORP are
equal in area. Then, the point O is called as
(a) incentre
(b) centroid
(c) circumcentre
(d) orthocentre
Ans. (b)
2. In ?ABC, O is the orthocentre and BOC = 2 A, then the magnitude of BOC is
equal to
(a) 120°
(b) 100°
(c) 80°
(d) 60°
Ans. (a)
3. ABC is a triangle whose sides BC and CA ate produced to D and E respectively. If
DCA = 108°, EAB = 124°, then the value of ABC is
(a) 72°
(b) 56°
(d) 1500
Ans. (c)
4. ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral in which AD is the diameter and BCD = 125°, then
the measure of ADB is
(a) 72°
(b) 45°
(c) 55°
(d) 65°
Ans. (a)
5. AD is the bisector of A of ?ABC, AC = 4.2 cm, DC = 6 cm, BC = 10 cm, then AB is
(a) 2.8 cm
(b) 3 cm
(c) 3.5 cm
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
6. If O is the orthocentre of the ?ABC, then
(a) BOC = 2 BAC
(b) BOC and BAC are supplementary
(c) BOC= BAC
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
7. In ?ABC, D, E and F are the mid points of the sides BC, CA and AB respectively.
The area of ?ABC is 24 cm2, then the area of ?DEF is
(a) 7 cm2
(b) 6 cm2
(c) 18 cm2
(d) 16 cm2
Ans. (b)
8. In a parallelogram PQRS, PQ = 4.5 cm, PR =6 cm, QS = 7.8 cm and the diagonals
PR and QS intersect each other at O, then to draw a parallelogram we have to draw
first
(a) ?PQR
(b) ?ROS
(c) ?QOR
(d) ?PRS
Ans. (b)
9. In the trapezium PQRS, PQ is parallel to RS and the diagonals intersect at O. If OP .
SR = m(OR . PQ), then the value of m is
(a) 1/4
(b) 1/3
(c) 1
(d) 1/2
Ans. (c)
10. In a parallelogram PQRS, X is the mid point of PS and Y is the mid point of QR,
then XY divides QS in the ratio of
(a) 1 : 4
(b) 1 : 1
(c) 1 : 2
(d) 1 : 3
Ans. (b)
11. The minimum number of dimensions needed to construct a rectangle is
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Ans. (a)
12. ABC is right angled triangle with BP as the perpendicular to the hypotenuse. The
ratio AB : AC is equal to
(a) 2 : 3
(b) BP : BC
(c) BP2 : BC2
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
13. The triangle ABC has AB = 5 cm, AC = 8 cm and BC = 9 cm, then ?ABC is
(a) obtuse angled
(b) not obtuse angled
(c) right angled
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
14. A rectangle PQRS is inscribed in a quadrant of a circle, with P at the centre and R
on the circumference. If PS is 12 cm and PQ is 5 cm, then the diameter of the circle
is
(a) 26 cm
(b) 29 cm
(c) 28 cm
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
15. In a right angled triangle, if one angle is 30 then the side opposite to it is
(a) one third of the base
(b) half of the hypotenuse
(c) one fourth of the hypotenuse
(d) one sixth of the hypotenuse
Ans. (b)
16. A circle is divided into 12 equal parts. The number of degrees in each arc is
(a) 60°
(b) 30°
(c) 45°
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
17. The figure formed by joining the mid points of the sides of a quadrilateral is a
(a) trapezium
(b) rhombus
(c) parallelogram
(d) rectangle
Ans. (c)
18. If a pair of opposite angles of a quadrilateral are supplementary, the quadrilateral is
a
(a) cyclic
(b) parallelogram
(c) rectangle
(d) rhombus
Ans. (a)
19. A pair of opposite sides of a cyclic quadrilateral are equal. Which one is true?
(a) Its diagonals are equal.
(b) It is a rhombus
(c) It is a parallelogram.
(d) All of these
Ans. (a)
20. The sum of the angles in four segments exterior to a cyclic quadrilateral is equal to
(a) 350°
(b) 450°
(c) 540°
(d) 180°
Ans. (c)
quiz questions on Indian constitution
quiz questions on Indian constitution
MCQ on Constitution Of India objective Multiple choice questions
1. The word ex-officio means included or allowed because of holding the office of the Vice President of India
(a) he/she would automatically become the Chairperson
(b) he/she would be elected by the people directly
(c) he/she would be nominated by the President of India
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
2. Which of the following statement is not correct?
(a) If the majority of the house votes against minister continues in power
(b) If the majority of the house votes for the motion the council of ministers has to resign
(c) If the President votes against the motion of the council of ministers 1s to resign
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
3. Which of the following is not correct?
(a) Starred questions are for oral answers.
(b) Non-starred questions and written answers
(c) Both are for oral and written answers
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
4. The President enjoys the following powers
(a) Financial powers
(b) Emergency powers
(c) Judicial powers
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)
5. Which of the following is not a judicial function of the Parliament?
(a) It can impeach and remove the President out of his office
(b) It takes part in the election of the President
(c) It can impeach the judges of the Supreme Court
(d) It can impeach the judges of the High Court of India
Ans. (b)
6. Which of the following is not the function of the cabinet?
(a) All national policies of the government are formulated
(b) All major appointments made by the President are decided by this body
(c) It decides the country’s foreign policy
(d) It rules but does not reign
Ans. (d)
7. The Council of Ministers at the centre is responsible to
(a) The President
(b) The Prime Minister
(c) The Rajya Sabha
(d) The Lok Sabha
Ans. (d)
8. In the third stage of the bill
(a) The name and purpose of the bill is given
(b) The bill is read and discussed clause by clause
(c) The bill is put to vote
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
9. The Parliament follows certain types of motions such as
(a) The no-confidence motion
(b) Calling attention notice
(c) Adjournment motion
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)
10. The head of the council of Ministers and the actual head of the central government is the
(a) President
(b) Cabinet Ministers
(c)Prime Minister
(d) Vice President
Ans. (c)
11. The judicial functions of the Indian Parliament are -
(a) It can remove the President out of office
(b) It can impeach the President
(c) It can impeach the judges of the Supreme Court and the High Court of India
(d) all of the above
Ans. (d)
12. The Parliament can pass a bill on subjects mentioned in the state list if members of
(a) The Rajya Sabha adopts a resolution to that effect by two-third majority
(b) The Lok Sabha adopts a resolution to that effect by two third majority
(c) The Lok Sabha adopts a resolution by simple majority
(d) The Rajya Sabha adopts a resolution to that effect by absolute majority.
Ans. (a)
13. Which statement is correct?
(a) The Indian Parliament controls the Executive
(b) The Speaker controls the Prime Minister
(c) The Vice President controls the Speaker
(d) All of the above are correct
Ans. (a)
14. Which of the following are not the functions of legislature?
(a) To enact laws
(b) To conduct election
(c) To control finance
(d) To consider matters of publish importance
Ans. (b)
15. Which of the following do not have bicameral legislature?
(a) England
(b) India
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
16. Which body can sit as the court of impeachment for the trial of the President?
(a) The Supreme Court
(b) The Election Commission
(c) The Parliament
(d) The Prime Minister
Ans. (c)
17. Who is the first citizen of the country?
(a) The wife of the President
(b) The father of the President
(c) The President himself
(d) The Prime Minister
Ans. (c)
18. President rule is imposed in a state under
(a) Article 353
(b) Article 356
(c) Article 351
(d) Article 359
Ans. (d)
19. Who had the shortest term of Vice Presidentship in India?
(a) Dr. Zakir Hussain
(b) Shri V.V. Giri
(c) Shri Krishan Kant
(d) Shri K.R. Narayanan
Ans. (b)
20. Who had the shortest term of Presidentship in India?
(a) Dr. F.A. Ahmed
(b) Dr. S. Radha Krishnan
(c) Dr. Zakir Hussain
(d) Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma
Ans. (c)
MCQ on Constitution Of India objective Multiple choice questions
1. The word ex-officio means included or allowed because of holding the office of the Vice President of India
(a) he/she would automatically become the Chairperson
(b) he/she would be elected by the people directly
(c) he/she would be nominated by the President of India
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
2. Which of the following statement is not correct?
(a) If the majority of the house votes against minister continues in power
(b) If the majority of the house votes for the motion the council of ministers has to resign
(c) If the President votes against the motion of the council of ministers 1s to resign
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
3. Which of the following is not correct?
(a) Starred questions are for oral answers.
(b) Non-starred questions and written answers
(c) Both are for oral and written answers
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
4. The President enjoys the following powers
(a) Financial powers
(b) Emergency powers
(c) Judicial powers
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)
5. Which of the following is not a judicial function of the Parliament?
(a) It can impeach and remove the President out of his office
(b) It takes part in the election of the President
(c) It can impeach the judges of the Supreme Court
(d) It can impeach the judges of the High Court of India
Ans. (b)
6. Which of the following is not the function of the cabinet?
(a) All national policies of the government are formulated
(b) All major appointments made by the President are decided by this body
(c) It decides the country’s foreign policy
(d) It rules but does not reign
Ans. (d)
7. The Council of Ministers at the centre is responsible to
(a) The President
(b) The Prime Minister
(c) The Rajya Sabha
(d) The Lok Sabha
Ans. (d)
8. In the third stage of the bill
(a) The name and purpose of the bill is given
(b) The bill is read and discussed clause by clause
(c) The bill is put to vote
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
9. The Parliament follows certain types of motions such as
(a) The no-confidence motion
(b) Calling attention notice
(c) Adjournment motion
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)
10. The head of the council of Ministers and the actual head of the central government is the
(a) President
(b) Cabinet Ministers
(c)Prime Minister
(d) Vice President
Ans. (c)
11. The judicial functions of the Indian Parliament are -
(a) It can remove the President out of office
(b) It can impeach the President
(c) It can impeach the judges of the Supreme Court and the High Court of India
(d) all of the above
Ans. (d)
12. The Parliament can pass a bill on subjects mentioned in the state list if members of
(a) The Rajya Sabha adopts a resolution to that effect by two-third majority
(b) The Lok Sabha adopts a resolution to that effect by two third majority
(c) The Lok Sabha adopts a resolution by simple majority
(d) The Rajya Sabha adopts a resolution to that effect by absolute majority.
Ans. (a)
13. Which statement is correct?
(a) The Indian Parliament controls the Executive
(b) The Speaker controls the Prime Minister
(c) The Vice President controls the Speaker
(d) All of the above are correct
Ans. (a)
14. Which of the following are not the functions of legislature?
(a) To enact laws
(b) To conduct election
(c) To control finance
(d) To consider matters of publish importance
Ans. (b)
15. Which of the following do not have bicameral legislature?
(a) England
(b) India
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
16. Which body can sit as the court of impeachment for the trial of the President?
(a) The Supreme Court
(b) The Election Commission
(c) The Parliament
(d) The Prime Minister
Ans. (c)
17. Who is the first citizen of the country?
(a) The wife of the President
(b) The father of the President
(c) The President himself
(d) The Prime Minister
Ans. (c)
18. President rule is imposed in a state under
(a) Article 353
(b) Article 356
(c) Article 351
(d) Article 359
Ans. (d)
19. Who had the shortest term of Vice Presidentship in India?
(a) Dr. Zakir Hussain
(b) Shri V.V. Giri
(c) Shri Krishan Kant
(d) Shri K.R. Narayanan
Ans. (b)
20. Who had the shortest term of Presidentship in India?
(a) Dr. F.A. Ahmed
(b) Dr. S. Radha Krishnan
(c) Dr. Zakir Hussain
(d) Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma
Ans. (c)
Organic Chemistry Practice Multiple Choice Questions
Organic Chemistry Practice Multiple Choice Questions
Problems and Objective Questions. Organic Chemistry
1. Destructive distillation of coal leads to the formation of
(a) Wood
(b) Kerosene
(c) Ammoniacal liquor
(d) Charcoal
Ans. (a)
2. In the hydrocarbon HC C—H, the covalence of carbon is
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) three
(d) four
Ans. (d)
3. Which of the following are isomers?
(a) Ethane and propane
(b) Ethane and ethene
(c) Ethene and ethyne
(d) Butane and isobutene
Ans. (d)
4. An unsaturated hydrocarbon
(a) Contains six carbon atoms
(b) contains fewer hydrogen atoms than is needed for carbon to have its usual valency of four
(c) Contains excess hydrogen
(d) Contains a chain of carbon atom
Ans. (b)
5. Which of these is not a fossil fuel?
(a) Coal
(b) LPG
(c) Bio gas
(d) Natural gas
Ans. (b)
6. A Gaseous fuel which does not contain carbon monoxide is
(a) Coal gas
(b) Natural gas
(c) Water gas
(d) Producer gas
Ans. (b)
7. Coal with largest C content is
(a) Anthracite
(b) Peat
(c) Lignite
(d) Bituminous
Ans. (a)
8. Which gas is produced when steam is passed over red hot coke?
(a) Produces gas
(b) CNG
(c) Water gas
(d) LPG
Ans. (c)
9. Which of the following is not true about Biogas?
(a) It contains Methane
(b) Bums without smoke
(c) Leaves ash behind
(d) Produced by anaerobic decomposition of animal and plant waste
Ans. (b)
10. Coal gas is mixture of
(a) CH4+H2+CO2+H2S
(b) CH4+H2+CO+H2S
(c) CH4 + H2 + CO
(d) Ethane, propane, butane
Ans. (c)
11. An allotropic form of carbon used for cutting and drilling is
(a) Charcoal
(b) Bone Charcoal
(c) Graphite
(d) Diamond
Ans. (d)
12. The variety of coal having highest carbon content is
(a) Peat
(b) Anthracite
(c) Bituminous
(d) Lignite
Ans. (b)
13. Chemistry of carbon compounds is known is
(a) Organic chemistry
(b) Inorganic chemistry
(c) Physical chemistry
(d) Biochemistry
Ans. (a)
14. Compounds of carbon and hydrogen are called
(a) hydrocarbon
(b) Petrol
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) Carbohydrates
Ans. (a)
15. Which substance is also known as Marsh gas?
(a) Methane
(b) Solid Carbon dioxide
(c) Carbon monoxide
(d) Ammonia
Ans. (a)
16. Methane reacts with chlorine in the presence of sunlight. If this reaction is allowed to continue, the end product formed will be
(a) Carbon tetrachloride
(b) Chloroform
(c) Ethylene Chloride
(d) Chalcogens
Ans. (a)
17. Crystalline form of carbon having 60 carbon atoms joined together
(a) polymer
(b) Buckminster Fullerene
(c) Coal
(d) Diamond
Ans. (b)
18. The molecular formula of butane is
(a) C4H10
(b) C5H12
(c) C4H8
(d) C4H6
Ans. (a)
19. The molecular formula of a methyl group is
(a) CH4
(b) CH3
(c) CH
(d) CH2
Ans. (b)
20. A process in which a change is brought by ferment such as yeast, enzymes which convert sugar into ethyl alcohol is called
(a) Polymerization
(b) Acetylation
(c) Hydrogenation
(d) Fermentation
Ans. (d)
21. Breaking of higher hydrocarbon into lower one by heat is called
(a) Neutralization
(b) Polymerization
(c) Cracking
(d) Acetylating
Ans. (c)
22. The carbon atoms in diamond are bonded to each other by
(a) Ionic bond
(b) Coordinate bond
(c) Hydrogen bonds
(d) Covalent bonds
Ans. (d)
23. Which of the following compounds with behave as an unsaturated hydrocarbon?
(a) Butane
(b) Ethane
(c) Ethyl alcohol
(d) Ethene
Ans. (d)
24. What type of reaction occurs between ethene and hydrogen?
(a) Addition
(b) Dehydration
(c) Substitution
(d) Oxidation
Ans. (a)
25. Acetylene polymerizes to give
(a) Benzene
(b) Polyacetylene
(c) Butane
(d) octane
Ans. (a)
Problems and Objective Questions. Organic Chemistry
1. Destructive distillation of coal leads to the formation of
(a) Wood
(b) Kerosene
(c) Ammoniacal liquor
(d) Charcoal
Ans. (a)
2. In the hydrocarbon HC C—H, the covalence of carbon is
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) three
(d) four
Ans. (d)
3. Which of the following are isomers?
(a) Ethane and propane
(b) Ethane and ethene
(c) Ethene and ethyne
(d) Butane and isobutene
Ans. (d)
4. An unsaturated hydrocarbon
(a) Contains six carbon atoms
(b) contains fewer hydrogen atoms than is needed for carbon to have its usual valency of four
(c) Contains excess hydrogen
(d) Contains a chain of carbon atom
Ans. (b)
5. Which of these is not a fossil fuel?
(a) Coal
(b) LPG
(c) Bio gas
(d) Natural gas
Ans. (b)
6. A Gaseous fuel which does not contain carbon monoxide is
(a) Coal gas
(b) Natural gas
(c) Water gas
(d) Producer gas
Ans. (b)
7. Coal with largest C content is
(a) Anthracite
(b) Peat
(c) Lignite
(d) Bituminous
Ans. (a)
8. Which gas is produced when steam is passed over red hot coke?
(a) Produces gas
(b) CNG
(c) Water gas
(d) LPG
Ans. (c)
9. Which of the following is not true about Biogas?
(a) It contains Methane
(b) Bums without smoke
(c) Leaves ash behind
(d) Produced by anaerobic decomposition of animal and plant waste
Ans. (b)
10. Coal gas is mixture of
(a) CH4+H2+CO2+H2S
(b) CH4+H2+CO+H2S
(c) CH4 + H2 + CO
(d) Ethane, propane, butane
Ans. (c)
11. An allotropic form of carbon used for cutting and drilling is
(a) Charcoal
(b) Bone Charcoal
(c) Graphite
(d) Diamond
Ans. (d)
12. The variety of coal having highest carbon content is
(a) Peat
(b) Anthracite
(c) Bituminous
(d) Lignite
Ans. (b)
13. Chemistry of carbon compounds is known is
(a) Organic chemistry
(b) Inorganic chemistry
(c) Physical chemistry
(d) Biochemistry
Ans. (a)
14. Compounds of carbon and hydrogen are called
(a) hydrocarbon
(b) Petrol
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) Carbohydrates
Ans. (a)
15. Which substance is also known as Marsh gas?
(a) Methane
(b) Solid Carbon dioxide
(c) Carbon monoxide
(d) Ammonia
Ans. (a)
16. Methane reacts with chlorine in the presence of sunlight. If this reaction is allowed to continue, the end product formed will be
(a) Carbon tetrachloride
(b) Chloroform
(c) Ethylene Chloride
(d) Chalcogens
Ans. (a)
17. Crystalline form of carbon having 60 carbon atoms joined together
(a) polymer
(b) Buckminster Fullerene
(c) Coal
(d) Diamond
Ans. (b)
18. The molecular formula of butane is
(a) C4H10
(b) C5H12
(c) C4H8
(d) C4H6
Ans. (a)
19. The molecular formula of a methyl group is
(a) CH4
(b) CH3
(c) CH
(d) CH2
Ans. (b)
20. A process in which a change is brought by ferment such as yeast, enzymes which convert sugar into ethyl alcohol is called
(a) Polymerization
(b) Acetylation
(c) Hydrogenation
(d) Fermentation
Ans. (d)
21. Breaking of higher hydrocarbon into lower one by heat is called
(a) Neutralization
(b) Polymerization
(c) Cracking
(d) Acetylating
Ans. (c)
22. The carbon atoms in diamond are bonded to each other by
(a) Ionic bond
(b) Coordinate bond
(c) Hydrogen bonds
(d) Covalent bonds
Ans. (d)
23. Which of the following compounds with behave as an unsaturated hydrocarbon?
(a) Butane
(b) Ethane
(c) Ethyl alcohol
(d) Ethene
Ans. (d)
24. What type of reaction occurs between ethene and hydrogen?
(a) Addition
(b) Dehydration
(c) Substitution
(d) Oxidation
Ans. (a)
25. Acetylene polymerizes to give
(a) Benzene
(b) Polyacetylene
(c) Butane
(d) octane
Ans. (a)
Friday, September 2, 2011
B.Ed Entrance Sample Paper GK
B.Ed Entrance Sample Paper GK
B Ed Entrance GK Question Paper Sample Model Paper
1. Which of the following is wrong statement?
(a) A rainbow can be seen only when the
Sun is at your front
(b) Sometimes two rainbows can be seen
Simultaneously
(c) The same rainbow can be observed by
Two persons if both have normal vision
(d) Rainbow is formed due to refraction of
Light in rain drops
Answer. (a)
2. The radiant energy of the sun results from:
(a) Cosmic radiation
(b) Nuclear fusion
(c) Nuclear fission
(d) Combustion
Answer. (b)
3. Metallurgy is the process of:
(a) Roasting from the ore
(b) Extracting metal from the ore
(c) Concentrating the ore
(d) Refining the ore
Answer. (b)
4. Antibiotics are:
(a) Anesthetic substances
(b) Sleeping pills
(c) Medicines against contamination of
Wounds
(d) Drugs prepared from moulds and
Mould like organisms
(e) Special medicines used during surgical
Operation
Answer. (c)
5. The green colour of leaves is due to the
Presence of:
(a) Iron
(b) Chlorophyll
(c) Etiolin
(d) The property of reflecting green colour
Of the sun and absorbing the rest
Answer. (b)
6. The chemical digestion of food takes place
In the following combination of organs in
The alimentary tract:
(a) Mouth and small intestine
(b) Stomach and small intestine
(c) Stomach and large intestine
Answer. (b)
7. Acupuncture is widely practised in:
(a) China
(b) America
(c) England
(d) Mangolia
Answer. (a)
8. Milk is pasteurized in order to:
(a) Destroy micro-organisms
(b) Detect adulteration
(c) Increase the protein content
(d) Increase the fat content
Answer. (a)
9. The main function of white blood
Corpuscles in the body is :
(a) To help in the formation of clot
(b) To carry food
(c) To carry oxygen
(d) To protect the body against disease
Answer. (d)
10. Red blood corpuscles are formed in the:
(a) Liver
(b) Kidneys
(c) Bone marrow
(d) Small Intestine
Answer. (c)
11. The real executive power under the
Constitution of India rests with:
(a) The President
(b) The Prime Minister
(c) The Parliament
(d) The Prime Minister and his Council of
Ministers
Answer. (d)
12. Which of the following Indian State has
Common borders with maximum number
Of other Indian States only?
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Bihar
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Answer. (d)
13. Hereditary characters are carried from one
Generation to another through:
(a) Cytoplasm
(b) Nucleoplasm
(c) Protoplasm
(d) Chromosomes
Answer. (d)
14. Which countries are the members of the
ASEAN (Association of South East Asian Nations)?
(a) Pakistan, Malaysia, Indonesia, Burma, Thailand
(b) North Korea, Burma, Bangladesh, Nepal
(c) Thailand, Indonesia, Malaysia, Singapore, Philippines, Vietnam and Brunei
(d) Sri Lanka, India, Burma, Singapore
(e) Laos, Cambodia, Philippines, Burma
Answer. (c)
15. How much total outlay had been proposed for the Eighth Five Year Plan?
(a) Rs. 7,98,000 crore
(b) Rs. 7,92,000 crore
(c) Rs. 4,311,100 crore
(d) Rs. 3,61.000 crore
Answer. (a)
16. According to the census of 1991 the only
State in India that shows excess of females
Over males is:
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Kerala
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Jammu and Kashmir
Answer. (b)
17. Which island is associated with the birth of Napoleon?
(a) Malta
(b) Cicely
(c) Corsica
(d) St. Helena
Answer. (c)
18. INS Udaigiri is the name of:
(a) Indian warship
(b) A famous temple in the Himalayas
(c) The highest hill top in Simla
(d) A mountain peak in the Himalayas
Answer. (a)
19. The central Government drives maximum
Revenue from:
(a) Income Tax
(b) Sale Tax
(c) Excise Duty
(d) Custom Duties
Answer. (d)
20. The Finance Commission is normally
Expected to be constituted after every:
(a) Year
(b) Two years
(c) Three years
(d) Five years
Answer. (d)
21. Who was awarded the 1998 Nobel Prize for
Peace?
(a) Nelson Mandela and F. W. De Klark
(b) Dr. Amartya Sen
(c) Joseph Rotblat
(d) Mr. David Trimble and Mr. John
Hume
Answer. (d)
22. ‘Kuchipudi’ is a dance style which
Originated in:
(a) Orissa
(b) Kerala
(c) North India
(d) Andhra Pradesh
Answer. (d)
23. Kuro Siwo is:
(a) Japanese mountain peak
(b) The high yielding rubber tree of
Malaysia
(c) A live volcano in Italy
(d) A hot water current of Pacific Ocean
Answer. (d)
24. Who was awarded 1998 Jann Pith Award?
(a) Amrita Pam
(b) Jai Prakash Narayan (Posthumously)
(c) Girish Karnad
(d) Dr. U.R. Ananthmurti
Answer. (c)
25. In the Film which picturized the life of Gandhi,
the role of Gandhi and Kasturba Were played by:
(a) Saied Jafri & Banisa Redford
(b) Ben Kingslay & Rohini Hattangaddi
(c) Mickle Ken & Chen Ferenda
(d) Roshah Seth & Smita Patil
Answer. (b)
B Ed Entrance GK Question Paper Sample Model Paper
1. Which of the following is wrong statement?
(a) A rainbow can be seen only when the
Sun is at your front
(b) Sometimes two rainbows can be seen
Simultaneously
(c) The same rainbow can be observed by
Two persons if both have normal vision
(d) Rainbow is formed due to refraction of
Light in rain drops
Answer. (a)
2. The radiant energy of the sun results from:
(a) Cosmic radiation
(b) Nuclear fusion
(c) Nuclear fission
(d) Combustion
Answer. (b)
3. Metallurgy is the process of:
(a) Roasting from the ore
(b) Extracting metal from the ore
(c) Concentrating the ore
(d) Refining the ore
Answer. (b)
4. Antibiotics are:
(a) Anesthetic substances
(b) Sleeping pills
(c) Medicines against contamination of
Wounds
(d) Drugs prepared from moulds and
Mould like organisms
(e) Special medicines used during surgical
Operation
Answer. (c)
5. The green colour of leaves is due to the
Presence of:
(a) Iron
(b) Chlorophyll
(c) Etiolin
(d) The property of reflecting green colour
Of the sun and absorbing the rest
Answer. (b)
6. The chemical digestion of food takes place
In the following combination of organs in
The alimentary tract:
(a) Mouth and small intestine
(b) Stomach and small intestine
(c) Stomach and large intestine
Answer. (b)
7. Acupuncture is widely practised in:
(a) China
(b) America
(c) England
(d) Mangolia
Answer. (a)
8. Milk is pasteurized in order to:
(a) Destroy micro-organisms
(b) Detect adulteration
(c) Increase the protein content
(d) Increase the fat content
Answer. (a)
9. The main function of white blood
Corpuscles in the body is :
(a) To help in the formation of clot
(b) To carry food
(c) To carry oxygen
(d) To protect the body against disease
Answer. (d)
10. Red blood corpuscles are formed in the:
(a) Liver
(b) Kidneys
(c) Bone marrow
(d) Small Intestine
Answer. (c)
11. The real executive power under the
Constitution of India rests with:
(a) The President
(b) The Prime Minister
(c) The Parliament
(d) The Prime Minister and his Council of
Ministers
Answer. (d)
12. Which of the following Indian State has
Common borders with maximum number
Of other Indian States only?
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Bihar
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Answer. (d)
13. Hereditary characters are carried from one
Generation to another through:
(a) Cytoplasm
(b) Nucleoplasm
(c) Protoplasm
(d) Chromosomes
Answer. (d)
14. Which countries are the members of the
ASEAN (Association of South East Asian Nations)?
(a) Pakistan, Malaysia, Indonesia, Burma, Thailand
(b) North Korea, Burma, Bangladesh, Nepal
(c) Thailand, Indonesia, Malaysia, Singapore, Philippines, Vietnam and Brunei
(d) Sri Lanka, India, Burma, Singapore
(e) Laos, Cambodia, Philippines, Burma
Answer. (c)
15. How much total outlay had been proposed for the Eighth Five Year Plan?
(a) Rs. 7,98,000 crore
(b) Rs. 7,92,000 crore
(c) Rs. 4,311,100 crore
(d) Rs. 3,61.000 crore
Answer. (a)
16. According to the census of 1991 the only
State in India that shows excess of females
Over males is:
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Kerala
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Jammu and Kashmir
Answer. (b)
17. Which island is associated with the birth of Napoleon?
(a) Malta
(b) Cicely
(c) Corsica
(d) St. Helena
Answer. (c)
18. INS Udaigiri is the name of:
(a) Indian warship
(b) A famous temple in the Himalayas
(c) The highest hill top in Simla
(d) A mountain peak in the Himalayas
Answer. (a)
19. The central Government drives maximum
Revenue from:
(a) Income Tax
(b) Sale Tax
(c) Excise Duty
(d) Custom Duties
Answer. (d)
20. The Finance Commission is normally
Expected to be constituted after every:
(a) Year
(b) Two years
(c) Three years
(d) Five years
Answer. (d)
21. Who was awarded the 1998 Nobel Prize for
Peace?
(a) Nelson Mandela and F. W. De Klark
(b) Dr. Amartya Sen
(c) Joseph Rotblat
(d) Mr. David Trimble and Mr. John
Hume
Answer. (d)
22. ‘Kuchipudi’ is a dance style which
Originated in:
(a) Orissa
(b) Kerala
(c) North India
(d) Andhra Pradesh
Answer. (d)
23. Kuro Siwo is:
(a) Japanese mountain peak
(b) The high yielding rubber tree of
Malaysia
(c) A live volcano in Italy
(d) A hot water current of Pacific Ocean
Answer. (d)
24. Who was awarded 1998 Jann Pith Award?
(a) Amrita Pam
(b) Jai Prakash Narayan (Posthumously)
(c) Girish Karnad
(d) Dr. U.R. Ananthmurti
Answer. (c)
25. In the Film which picturized the life of Gandhi,
the role of Gandhi and Kasturba Were played by:
(a) Saied Jafri & Banisa Redford
(b) Ben Kingslay & Rohini Hattangaddi
(c) Mickle Ken & Chen Ferenda
(d) Roshah Seth & Smita Patil
Answer. (b)
Tuesday, August 30, 2011
Computer Awareness Previous Paper 201 Union Bank India PO exam
Computer Awareness Previous Paper 201 Union Bank India PO exam
Free Online Bank Exam Question Paper
1. You can keep your personal files/folders in—
(A) My folder
(B) My Documents
(C) My Files
(D) My Text
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
2. The primary purpose of software is to turn data into—
(A) Web sites
(B) Information
(C) Programs
(D) Objects
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
3. A directory within a directory is called—
(A) Mini Directory
(B) Junior Directory
(C) Part Directory
(D) Sub Directory
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
4. A compiler translates a program written in a high-level language into—
(A) Machine language
(B) An algorithm
(C) A debugged program
(D) Java
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
5. When you turn on the computer, the boot routine will perform this test—
(A) RAM test
(B) Disk drive test
(C) Memory test
(D) Power-on self-test
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
6. A ……is a unique name that you give to a file of information.
(A) device letter
(B) folder
(C) filename
(D) filename extension
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
7. Hardware includes—
(A) all devices used to input data into a computer
(B) sets of instructions that a computer runs or executes
(C) the computer and all the devices connected to it that are used to input and output data
(D) all devices involved in processing information including the central processing unit, memory and storage
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
8. A ……… contains specific rules and words that express the logical steps of an algorithm.
(A) programming language
(B) syntax
(C) programming structure
(D) logic chart
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
9. All the deleted files go to—
(A) Recycle Bin
(B) Task Bar
(C) Tool Bar
(D) My Computer
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
10. The simultaneous processing of two or more programs by multiple processors is—
(A) Multiprogramming
(B) Multitasking
(C) Time-sharing
(D) Multiprocessing
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
11. The secret code that restricts entry to some programs—
(A) Password
(B) Passport
(C) Entry-code
(D) Access-code
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
12. Computers use the ……… number system to store data and perform calculations.
(A) binary
(B) octal
(C) decimal
(D) hexadecimal
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
13. The main function of the ALU is to—
(A) Perform arithmetic and logical operations
(B) Store data and information for future use
(C) Control computer output, such as printing
(D) Monitor all computer activities
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
14. ……is the process of carrying out commands.
(A) Fetching
(B) Storing
(C) Executing
(D) Decoding
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
15. Softcopy is the intangible output, so then what is hardcopy ?
(A) The physical parts of the computer
(B) The printed parts of the computer
(C) The printed output
(D) The physical output devices
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
16. A(n) ……… is a program that makes the computer easier to use.
(A) utility
(B) application
(C) operating system
(D) network
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
17. A complete electronic circuit with transistors and other electronic components on a small silicon chip is called a(n)—
(A) Workstation
(B) CPU
(C) Magnetic disk
(D) Integrated circuit
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
18. Computer systems are comprised of—
(A) Hardware, programs, processors, procedures and people
(B) Hardware, programs, information, people and procedures
(C) Hardware, programs, information, people and networks
(D) Hardware, software, procedures, networks and people
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
19. An error in a computer program—
(A) Crash
(B) Power Failure
(C) Bug
(D) Virus
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
20. What is output ?
(A) What the processor takes from the user
(B) What the user gives to the processor
(C) What the processor gets from the user
(D) What the processor gives to the user
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
21. The person who writes and tests computer programs is called a—
(A) programmer
(B) computer scientist
(C) software engineer
(D) project developer
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
22. A set of instructions telling the computer what to do is called—
(A) mentor
(B) instructor
(C) compiler
(D) program
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
23. What menu is selected to print ?
(A) Edit
(B) Special
(C) File
(D) Tools
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
24. What is backup ?
(A) Adding more components to your network
(B) Protecting data by copying it from the original source to a different destination
(C) Filtering old data from the new data
(D) Accessing data on tape
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
25. The term bit is short for—
(A) Megabyte
(B) Binary language
(C) Binary digit
(D) Binary number
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
26. A saved document is referred to as a—
(A) file
(B) word
(C) folder
(D) project
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
27. Specialized programs that assist users in locating information on the Web are called—
(A) Information engines
(B) Search engines
(C) Web browsers
(D) Resource locators
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
28. An application program has which one of the following functions ?
(A) It specifies the informationprocessing procedures required by a particular informationprocessing job
(B) It controls the input/output and storage functions of the computer system
(C) It provides various support services for the computer system
(D) It supervises the operations of the CPU
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
29. In page preview mode—
(A) You can see all pages of your document
(B) You can only see the page you are currently working
(C) You can only see pages that do not contain graphics
(D) You can only see the title page of your document
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
30. An operating system that can do multitasking means that—
(A) The operating system can divide up work between several CPUs
(B) Several programs can be operated concurrently
(C) Multiple people can use the computer concurrently
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
31. The quickest and easiest way in Word, to locate a particular word or phrase in a document is to use the ……… command.
(A) Replace
(B) Find
(C) Lookup
(D) Search
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
32. What is the default file extension for all Word documents ?
(A) WRD
(B) TXT
(C) DOC
(D) FIL
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
33. With a CD you can—
(A) Read
(B) Write
(C) Read and Write
(D) Either Read or Write
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
34. A collection of interrelated records is called a—
(A) Utility file
(B) Management information system
(C) Database
(D) Spreadsheet
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
35. To move to the beginning of a line of text, press the ……… key.
(A) PageUp
(B) A
(C) Home
(D) Enter
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
36. The term ‘user interface’ refers to—
(A) What the user sees on the screen and how they can interact with it
(B) How the operating system responds to user commands
(C) the means by which the user interacts with the peripheral devices on the computer
(D) The monitor that is available for the computer
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
37. The background of any Word document—
(A) Is always white colour
(B) Is the colour you preset under the Options menu
(C) Is always the same for the entire document
(D) Can have any colour you choose
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
38. Reusable optical storage will typically have the acronym—
(A) CD
(B) DVD
(C) ROM
(D) RW
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
39. For creating a document, you use ……… command at File Menu.
(A) Open
(B) Close
(C) New
(D) Save
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
40. The contents of ……… are lost when the computer turns off.
(A) storage
(B) input
(C) output
(D) memory
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
41. Grouping and processing all of a firm’s transactions at one time is called—
(A) A database management system
(B) Batch processing
(C) A real-time system
(D) An on-line system
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
42. A printer is this kind of device—
(A) Input
(B) Word processing
(C) Processing
(D) Output
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
43. Text in a column is generally aligned—
(A) Justified
(B) Right
(C) Center
(D) Left
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
44. What type of device is a computer mouse ?
(A) Input
(B) Output
(C) Software
(D) Storage
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
45. In Excel, Charts are created using which option ?
(A) Chart Wizard
(B) Pivot Table
(C) Pie Chart
(D) Bar Chart
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
46. What is the permanent memory built into your computer called ?
(A) RAM
(B) ROM
(C) CPU
(D) CD-ROM
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
47. If text was highlighted and ‘Edit’ ‘Copy’ was clicked, what would happen ?
(A) Text would be copied from the document and placed in the clipboard
(B) Text would be removed from the document and placed in the clipboard
(C) Text from the clipboard would be placed in the document at the place where the cursor is blinking
(D) (B) and (C) above
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
48. You can start Microsoft Word by using ……… button.
(A) New
(B) Start
(C) Program
(D) Control Panel
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
49. You click at B to make the text—
(A) Italics
(B) Underlined
(C) Italics and Underlined
(D) Bold
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
50. The……becomes different shapes depending on the task you are performing.
(A) Active tab
(B) Insertion point
(C) Mouse pointer
(D) Ribbon
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
Free Online Bank Exam Question Paper
1. You can keep your personal files/folders in—
(A) My folder
(B) My Documents
(C) My Files
(D) My Text
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
2. The primary purpose of software is to turn data into—
(A) Web sites
(B) Information
(C) Programs
(D) Objects
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
3. A directory within a directory is called—
(A) Mini Directory
(B) Junior Directory
(C) Part Directory
(D) Sub Directory
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
4. A compiler translates a program written in a high-level language into—
(A) Machine language
(B) An algorithm
(C) A debugged program
(D) Java
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
5. When you turn on the computer, the boot routine will perform this test—
(A) RAM test
(B) Disk drive test
(C) Memory test
(D) Power-on self-test
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
6. A ……is a unique name that you give to a file of information.
(A) device letter
(B) folder
(C) filename
(D) filename extension
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
7. Hardware includes—
(A) all devices used to input data into a computer
(B) sets of instructions that a computer runs or executes
(C) the computer and all the devices connected to it that are used to input and output data
(D) all devices involved in processing information including the central processing unit, memory and storage
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
8. A ……… contains specific rules and words that express the logical steps of an algorithm.
(A) programming language
(B) syntax
(C) programming structure
(D) logic chart
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
9. All the deleted files go to—
(A) Recycle Bin
(B) Task Bar
(C) Tool Bar
(D) My Computer
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
10. The simultaneous processing of two or more programs by multiple processors is—
(A) Multiprogramming
(B) Multitasking
(C) Time-sharing
(D) Multiprocessing
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
11. The secret code that restricts entry to some programs—
(A) Password
(B) Passport
(C) Entry-code
(D) Access-code
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
12. Computers use the ……… number system to store data and perform calculations.
(A) binary
(B) octal
(C) decimal
(D) hexadecimal
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
13. The main function of the ALU is to—
(A) Perform arithmetic and logical operations
(B) Store data and information for future use
(C) Control computer output, such as printing
(D) Monitor all computer activities
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
14. ……is the process of carrying out commands.
(A) Fetching
(B) Storing
(C) Executing
(D) Decoding
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
15. Softcopy is the intangible output, so then what is hardcopy ?
(A) The physical parts of the computer
(B) The printed parts of the computer
(C) The printed output
(D) The physical output devices
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
16. A(n) ……… is a program that makes the computer easier to use.
(A) utility
(B) application
(C) operating system
(D) network
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
17. A complete electronic circuit with transistors and other electronic components on a small silicon chip is called a(n)—
(A) Workstation
(B) CPU
(C) Magnetic disk
(D) Integrated circuit
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
18. Computer systems are comprised of—
(A) Hardware, programs, processors, procedures and people
(B) Hardware, programs, information, people and procedures
(C) Hardware, programs, information, people and networks
(D) Hardware, software, procedures, networks and people
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
19. An error in a computer program—
(A) Crash
(B) Power Failure
(C) Bug
(D) Virus
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
20. What is output ?
(A) What the processor takes from the user
(B) What the user gives to the processor
(C) What the processor gets from the user
(D) What the processor gives to the user
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
21. The person who writes and tests computer programs is called a—
(A) programmer
(B) computer scientist
(C) software engineer
(D) project developer
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
22. A set of instructions telling the computer what to do is called—
(A) mentor
(B) instructor
(C) compiler
(D) program
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
23. What menu is selected to print ?
(A) Edit
(B) Special
(C) File
(D) Tools
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
24. What is backup ?
(A) Adding more components to your network
(B) Protecting data by copying it from the original source to a different destination
(C) Filtering old data from the new data
(D) Accessing data on tape
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
25. The term bit is short for—
(A) Megabyte
(B) Binary language
(C) Binary digit
(D) Binary number
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
26. A saved document is referred to as a—
(A) file
(B) word
(C) folder
(D) project
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
27. Specialized programs that assist users in locating information on the Web are called—
(A) Information engines
(B) Search engines
(C) Web browsers
(D) Resource locators
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
28. An application program has which one of the following functions ?
(A) It specifies the informationprocessing procedures required by a particular informationprocessing job
(B) It controls the input/output and storage functions of the computer system
(C) It provides various support services for the computer system
(D) It supervises the operations of the CPU
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
29. In page preview mode—
(A) You can see all pages of your document
(B) You can only see the page you are currently working
(C) You can only see pages that do not contain graphics
(D) You can only see the title page of your document
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
30. An operating system that can do multitasking means that—
(A) The operating system can divide up work between several CPUs
(B) Several programs can be operated concurrently
(C) Multiple people can use the computer concurrently
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
31. The quickest and easiest way in Word, to locate a particular word or phrase in a document is to use the ……… command.
(A) Replace
(B) Find
(C) Lookup
(D) Search
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
32. What is the default file extension for all Word documents ?
(A) WRD
(B) TXT
(C) DOC
(D) FIL
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
33. With a CD you can—
(A) Read
(B) Write
(C) Read and Write
(D) Either Read or Write
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
34. A collection of interrelated records is called a—
(A) Utility file
(B) Management information system
(C) Database
(D) Spreadsheet
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
35. To move to the beginning of a line of text, press the ……… key.
(A) PageUp
(B) A
(C) Home
(D) Enter
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
36. The term ‘user interface’ refers to—
(A) What the user sees on the screen and how they can interact with it
(B) How the operating system responds to user commands
(C) the means by which the user interacts with the peripheral devices on the computer
(D) The monitor that is available for the computer
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
37. The background of any Word document—
(A) Is always white colour
(B) Is the colour you preset under the Options menu
(C) Is always the same for the entire document
(D) Can have any colour you choose
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
38. Reusable optical storage will typically have the acronym—
(A) CD
(B) DVD
(C) ROM
(D) RW
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
39. For creating a document, you use ……… command at File Menu.
(A) Open
(B) Close
(C) New
(D) Save
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
40. The contents of ……… are lost when the computer turns off.
(A) storage
(B) input
(C) output
(D) memory
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
41. Grouping and processing all of a firm’s transactions at one time is called—
(A) A database management system
(B) Batch processing
(C) A real-time system
(D) An on-line system
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
42. A printer is this kind of device—
(A) Input
(B) Word processing
(C) Processing
(D) Output
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
43. Text in a column is generally aligned—
(A) Justified
(B) Right
(C) Center
(D) Left
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
44. What type of device is a computer mouse ?
(A) Input
(B) Output
(C) Software
(D) Storage
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
45. In Excel, Charts are created using which option ?
(A) Chart Wizard
(B) Pivot Table
(C) Pie Chart
(D) Bar Chart
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
46. What is the permanent memory built into your computer called ?
(A) RAM
(B) ROM
(C) CPU
(D) CD-ROM
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
47. If text was highlighted and ‘Edit’ ‘Copy’ was clicked, what would happen ?
(A) Text would be copied from the document and placed in the clipboard
(B) Text would be removed from the document and placed in the clipboard
(C) Text from the clipboard would be placed in the document at the place where the cursor is blinking
(D) (B) and (C) above
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
48. You can start Microsoft Word by using ……… button.
(A) New
(B) Start
(C) Program
(D) Control Panel
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
49. You click at B to make the text—
(A) Italics
(B) Underlined
(C) Italics and Underlined
(D) Bold
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
50. The……becomes different shapes depending on the task you are performing.
(A) Active tab
(B) Insertion point
(C) Mouse pointer
(D) Ribbon
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
Friday, August 26, 2011
Free Online Practice Gk test general Science
Free Online Practice Gk test general Science
Free Online General Knowledge Preparation Test Containing Basic Questions on general Science
1. Rusting of iron is due to formation of-
(a) Ferric hydroxide
(b) Hydrated ferrous oxide
(c) Hydrated ferric oxide
(d) Ferrous oxide
(e) None of these
Answer. (a)
2. The enzyme found in the saliva is-
(a) Ptylin
(b) Pepsin
(c) Maltase
(d) Lipase
(e) Amylase
Answer. (a)
3. Diabetes incipidus is caused due to the
Deficiency of-
(a) Insulin
(b) Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH)
(c) Glucagon
(d) Thyroxine
(e) ASH
Answer. (b)
4. A new galaxy known as Carina Dwarf has
Been discovered by-
(a) Dr. Russell Cannon of Britain
(b) Dr. Raja Rammana of India
(c) A Russian scientist
(d) A Swiss scientist
(e) An Italian scientist
Answer. (a)
5. Anaemia in man is caused due to the
Deficiency of-
(a) Vitamin C
(b) Vitamin B12
(c) Vitamin A
(d) Folic acid
(e) Vitamin D
Answer. (b)
6. What is the chemical name for Vitamin B1?
(a) Glycodin
(b) Cholesterol
(c) Glucose
(d) Thiamine
(e) Riboflavine
Answer. (d)
7. Chloromycetin is obtained from-
(a) Streptomyces griseus
(b) Streptomyces venezuelae
(c) Acetobacter aceti
(d) Aspergillus Niger
(e) All of these
Answer. (b)
8. The substance which acts as a strong
Bleaching agent and disinfectant is-
(a) Bromine
(b) Iodine
(c) Chlorine
(d) Fluorine
(e) Astatine
Answer. (c)
9. Which was the first country whose scientists
Succeeded in fertilizing the human embryo in the test-tube?
(a) U. S. A.
(b) U.S.S.R.
(c) U. K.
(d) India
(e) China
Answer. (c)
10. Which is the only mammal which can fly?
(a) Whale
(b) Snake
(d) Hen
(d) Lizard
(e) Bat
Answer. (e)
11. The equivalent of Watt can be expressed
In-
(a) Foot-pounds
(b) Foot-pounds per second
(c) Pounds per square inch
(d) Calories
(e) Volts
Answer. (b)
12. Plants are killed in winter by frost because-
(a) Water expands and breaks the cells
(b) Water in the plants freezes
(c) Of desication
(d) N0 photosynthesis at low temperature
(e) None of these
Answer. (c)
13. The outer most layer of epidermis is-
(a) Stratum germinatum
(b) Stratum lucidium
(c) Stratum granulosum
(d) Stratum corneum
(e) None of these
Answer. (d)
14. Why is rotation of crops essential?
(a) For increasing the quantity of minerals
(b) For increasing the quantity of proteins
(c) For getting different kinds of crops
(d) For increasing fertility of the soil
(e) For all the above purposes
Answer. (d)
15. Most of the atmospheric nitrogen in nature
Is fixed by-
(a) Prokaryotes
(b) Anabaena
(c) Green plants
(d) Azotobacter
(e) All of these
Answer. (a)
16. What is the lowest frequency we can hear
About?
(a) 2000 vibrations per second
(b) 20O vibrations per second
(c) 100 vibrations per second
(d) 20 vibrations per second
(e) 500 vibrations per second
Answer. (d)
17. Soft water is used in industrial operations
Because-
(a) It is a better conductor
(b) It boils at a lower temperature
(c) It leaves less mineral deposits as scales
(d) It has less living organisms
(e) It tastes better
Answer. (c)
18. An element used as a semi-conductor in transistor is-
(a) Chromium
(b) Silicon
(c) Germanium
(d) Gold
(e) Copper
Answer. (c)
19. As a person becomes older, his blood pressure generally-
(a) Decreases sharply
(b) Increases
(c) Varies widely
(d) Remains the same
(e) Decreases
Answer. (b)
20. Which is the most malleable and ductile of all metals?
(a) Gold
(b) Silver
(C) Aluminum
(d) Tungsten
(e) Platinum
Answer. (a)
21. Laws of heredity were enunciated by-
(a) Charles Darwin
(b) Herbert Spencer
(c) Lamarck
(d) A. C. Benson
(e) Gragor Mendel
Answer. (e)
22. The length of night on Venus is-
(a) 180 earth days
(b) 135 earth days
(c) 118 earth days
(d) 50 earth days
(e) 3O earth days
Answer. (c)
23. Low melting point alloys usually contain
Lead and-
(a) Zinc
(b) Copper
(c) Mercury
(d) Aluminium
Answer. (d)
24. Hepatitis is a disease of the-
(a) Eyes
(b) Liver
(C) Kidney
(d) Heart
(e) Brain
Answer. (b)
25. Which of the following is not concerned
With lungs?
(a) Respiration
(b) Pneumonia
(c) Pulmonary tuberculosis
(d) Purification of blood
(e) Epilepsy
Answer. (e)
Free Online General Knowledge Preparation Test Containing Basic Questions on general Science
1. Rusting of iron is due to formation of-
(a) Ferric hydroxide
(b) Hydrated ferrous oxide
(c) Hydrated ferric oxide
(d) Ferrous oxide
(e) None of these
Answer. (a)
2. The enzyme found in the saliva is-
(a) Ptylin
(b) Pepsin
(c) Maltase
(d) Lipase
(e) Amylase
Answer. (a)
3. Diabetes incipidus is caused due to the
Deficiency of-
(a) Insulin
(b) Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH)
(c) Glucagon
(d) Thyroxine
(e) ASH
Answer. (b)
4. A new galaxy known as Carina Dwarf has
Been discovered by-
(a) Dr. Russell Cannon of Britain
(b) Dr. Raja Rammana of India
(c) A Russian scientist
(d) A Swiss scientist
(e) An Italian scientist
Answer. (a)
5. Anaemia in man is caused due to the
Deficiency of-
(a) Vitamin C
(b) Vitamin B12
(c) Vitamin A
(d) Folic acid
(e) Vitamin D
Answer. (b)
6. What is the chemical name for Vitamin B1?
(a) Glycodin
(b) Cholesterol
(c) Glucose
(d) Thiamine
(e) Riboflavine
Answer. (d)
7. Chloromycetin is obtained from-
(a) Streptomyces griseus
(b) Streptomyces venezuelae
(c) Acetobacter aceti
(d) Aspergillus Niger
(e) All of these
Answer. (b)
8. The substance which acts as a strong
Bleaching agent and disinfectant is-
(a) Bromine
(b) Iodine
(c) Chlorine
(d) Fluorine
(e) Astatine
Answer. (c)
9. Which was the first country whose scientists
Succeeded in fertilizing the human embryo in the test-tube?
(a) U. S. A.
(b) U.S.S.R.
(c) U. K.
(d) India
(e) China
Answer. (c)
10. Which is the only mammal which can fly?
(a) Whale
(b) Snake
(d) Hen
(d) Lizard
(e) Bat
Answer. (e)
11. The equivalent of Watt can be expressed
In-
(a) Foot-pounds
(b) Foot-pounds per second
(c) Pounds per square inch
(d) Calories
(e) Volts
Answer. (b)
12. Plants are killed in winter by frost because-
(a) Water expands and breaks the cells
(b) Water in the plants freezes
(c) Of desication
(d) N0 photosynthesis at low temperature
(e) None of these
Answer. (c)
13. The outer most layer of epidermis is-
(a) Stratum germinatum
(b) Stratum lucidium
(c) Stratum granulosum
(d) Stratum corneum
(e) None of these
Answer. (d)
14. Why is rotation of crops essential?
(a) For increasing the quantity of minerals
(b) For increasing the quantity of proteins
(c) For getting different kinds of crops
(d) For increasing fertility of the soil
(e) For all the above purposes
Answer. (d)
15. Most of the atmospheric nitrogen in nature
Is fixed by-
(a) Prokaryotes
(b) Anabaena
(c) Green plants
(d) Azotobacter
(e) All of these
Answer. (a)
16. What is the lowest frequency we can hear
About?
(a) 2000 vibrations per second
(b) 20O vibrations per second
(c) 100 vibrations per second
(d) 20 vibrations per second
(e) 500 vibrations per second
Answer. (d)
17. Soft water is used in industrial operations
Because-
(a) It is a better conductor
(b) It boils at a lower temperature
(c) It leaves less mineral deposits as scales
(d) It has less living organisms
(e) It tastes better
Answer. (c)
18. An element used as a semi-conductor in transistor is-
(a) Chromium
(b) Silicon
(c) Germanium
(d) Gold
(e) Copper
Answer. (c)
19. As a person becomes older, his blood pressure generally-
(a) Decreases sharply
(b) Increases
(c) Varies widely
(d) Remains the same
(e) Decreases
Answer. (b)
20. Which is the most malleable and ductile of all metals?
(a) Gold
(b) Silver
(C) Aluminum
(d) Tungsten
(e) Platinum
Answer. (a)
21. Laws of heredity were enunciated by-
(a) Charles Darwin
(b) Herbert Spencer
(c) Lamarck
(d) A. C. Benson
(e) Gragor Mendel
Answer. (e)
22. The length of night on Venus is-
(a) 180 earth days
(b) 135 earth days
(c) 118 earth days
(d) 50 earth days
(e) 3O earth days
Answer. (c)
23. Low melting point alloys usually contain
Lead and-
(a) Zinc
(b) Copper
(c) Mercury
(d) Aluminium
Answer. (d)
24. Hepatitis is a disease of the-
(a) Eyes
(b) Liver
(C) Kidney
(d) Heart
(e) Brain
Answer. (b)
25. Which of the following is not concerned
With lungs?
(a) Respiration
(b) Pneumonia
(c) Pulmonary tuberculosis
(d) Purification of blood
(e) Epilepsy
Answer. (e)
Monday, August 1, 2011
Pharmacodynamics Objective test
Pharmacodynamics Objective test
Pharmacodynamics Practice Exam
Objective measures of the pharmacodynamic
1. Pharmacodynamics involves the study of following EXCEPT:
a) Biological and therapeutic effects of drugs
b) Absorption and distribution of drugs
c) Mechanisms of drug action
d) Drug interactions
Ans : b
2. Pharmacodynamics involves the following?
a) Information about main mechanisms of drug absorption
b) Information about unwanted effects
c) Information about biological barriers
d) Information about excretion of a drug from the organism
Ans : b
3. What does “affinity” mean?
a) A measure of how tightly a drug binds to plasma proteins
b) A measure of how tightly a drug binds to a receptor
c) A measure of inhibiting potency of a drug
d) A measure of bioavailability of a drug
Ans : b
4. An agonist is a substance that:
a) Interacts with the receptor without producing any effect
b) Interacts with the receptor and initiates changes in cell function, producing various effects
c) Increases concentration of another substance to produce effect
d) Interacts with plasma proteins and doesn’t produce any effect
Ans : b
5. If an agonist can produce submaximal effects and has moderate efficacy it’s called:
a) Partial agonist
b) Antagonist
c) Agonist-antagonist
d) Full agonist
Ans : a
6. A competitive antagonist is a substance that:
a) Interacts with receptors and produces submaximal effect
b) Binds to the same receptor site and progressively inhibits the agonist response
c) Binds to the nonspecific sites of tissue
d) Binds to one receptor subtype as an agonist and to another as an antagonist
Ans : b
7. Irreversible interaction of an antagonist with a receptor is due to:
a) Ionic bonds
b) Hydrogen bonds
c) Covalent bonds
d) All of the above
Ans : c
8.. Tick the second messenger of G-protein-coupled (metabotropic) receptor:
a) Adenylyl cyclase
b) Sodium ions
c) Phospholipase C
d) cAMP
Ans : d
9. The increase of second messengers’ (cAMP, cGMP, Ca2+ etc.) concentration leads to:
a) Inhibition of intracellular protein kinases and protein phosphorylation
b) Proteinkinases activation and protein phosphorylation
c) Blocking of interaction between a receptor and an effector
d) Antagonism with endogenous ligands
Ans : b
10. All of the following statements about efficacy and potency are true EXCEPT:
a) Efficacy is usually a more important clinical consideration than potency
b) Efficacy is the maximum effect of a drug
c) Potency is a comparative measure, refers to the different doses of two drugs that are needed to produce the same effect
d) The ED50 is a measure of drug’s efficacy
Ans : d
11. Pick out the correct definition of a toxic dose:
a) The amount of substance to produce the minimal biological effect
b) The amount of substance to produce effects hazardous for an organism
c) The amount of substance to produce the necessary effect in most of patients
d) The amount of substance to fast creation of high concentration of medicine in an organism
Ans : b
12. What term is used to describe a more gradual decrease in responsiveness to a drug, taking days or weeks to develop?
a) Refractoriness
b) Cumulative effect
c) Tolerance
d) Tachyphylaxis
Ans : d
13. Tachyphylaxis is:
a) A drug interaction between two similar types of drugs
b) Very rapidly developing tolerance
c) A decrease in responsiveness to a drug, taking days or weeks to develop
d) None of the above
Ans : b
14. Tolerance and drug resistance can be a consequence of:
a) Drug dependence
b) Increased metabolic degradation
c) Depressed renal drug excretion
d) Activation of a drug after hepatic first-pass
Ans : b
15. Tolerance develops because of:
a) Diminished absorption
b) Rapid excretion of a drug
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above
Ans : d
16. The situation when failure to continue administering the drug results in serious psychological and somatic disturbances is
called?
a) Tachyphylaxis
b) Sensibilization
c) Abstinence syndrome
d) Idiosyncrasy
Ans : c
17. What is the type of drug-to-drug interaction which is the result of interaction at receptor, cell, enzyme or organ level?
a) Pharmacodynamic interaction
b) Physical and chemical interaction
c) Pharmaceutical interaction
d) Pharmacokinetic interaction
Ans : a
18. If two drugs with the same effect, taken together, produce an effect that is equal in magnitude to the sum of the effects of
the drugs given individually, it is called as:
a) Antagonism
b) Potentiation
c) Additive effect
d) None of the above
Ans : c
19. The types of antagonism are:
a) Summarized
b) Potentiated
c) Additive
d) Competitive
Ans : d
20. A teratogenic action is:
a) Toxic action on the liver
b) Negative action on the fetus causing fetal malformation
c) Toxic action on blood system
d) Toxic action on kidneys
Ans : b
Pharmacodynamics Practice Exam
Objective measures of the pharmacodynamic
1. Pharmacodynamics involves the study of following EXCEPT:
a) Biological and therapeutic effects of drugs
b) Absorption and distribution of drugs
c) Mechanisms of drug action
d) Drug interactions
Ans : b
2. Pharmacodynamics involves the following?
a) Information about main mechanisms of drug absorption
b) Information about unwanted effects
c) Information about biological barriers
d) Information about excretion of a drug from the organism
Ans : b
3. What does “affinity” mean?
a) A measure of how tightly a drug binds to plasma proteins
b) A measure of how tightly a drug binds to a receptor
c) A measure of inhibiting potency of a drug
d) A measure of bioavailability of a drug
Ans : b
4. An agonist is a substance that:
a) Interacts with the receptor without producing any effect
b) Interacts with the receptor and initiates changes in cell function, producing various effects
c) Increases concentration of another substance to produce effect
d) Interacts with plasma proteins and doesn’t produce any effect
Ans : b
5. If an agonist can produce submaximal effects and has moderate efficacy it’s called:
a) Partial agonist
b) Antagonist
c) Agonist-antagonist
d) Full agonist
Ans : a
6. A competitive antagonist is a substance that:
a) Interacts with receptors and produces submaximal effect
b) Binds to the same receptor site and progressively inhibits the agonist response
c) Binds to the nonspecific sites of tissue
d) Binds to one receptor subtype as an agonist and to another as an antagonist
Ans : b
7. Irreversible interaction of an antagonist with a receptor is due to:
a) Ionic bonds
b) Hydrogen bonds
c) Covalent bonds
d) All of the above
Ans : c
8.. Tick the second messenger of G-protein-coupled (metabotropic) receptor:
a) Adenylyl cyclase
b) Sodium ions
c) Phospholipase C
d) cAMP
Ans : d
9. The increase of second messengers’ (cAMP, cGMP, Ca2+ etc.) concentration leads to:
a) Inhibition of intracellular protein kinases and protein phosphorylation
b) Proteinkinases activation and protein phosphorylation
c) Blocking of interaction between a receptor and an effector
d) Antagonism with endogenous ligands
Ans : b
10. All of the following statements about efficacy and potency are true EXCEPT:
a) Efficacy is usually a more important clinical consideration than potency
b) Efficacy is the maximum effect of a drug
c) Potency is a comparative measure, refers to the different doses of two drugs that are needed to produce the same effect
d) The ED50 is a measure of drug’s efficacy
Ans : d
11. Pick out the correct definition of a toxic dose:
a) The amount of substance to produce the minimal biological effect
b) The amount of substance to produce effects hazardous for an organism
c) The amount of substance to produce the necessary effect in most of patients
d) The amount of substance to fast creation of high concentration of medicine in an organism
Ans : b
12. What term is used to describe a more gradual decrease in responsiveness to a drug, taking days or weeks to develop?
a) Refractoriness
b) Cumulative effect
c) Tolerance
d) Tachyphylaxis
Ans : d
13. Tachyphylaxis is:
a) A drug interaction between two similar types of drugs
b) Very rapidly developing tolerance
c) A decrease in responsiveness to a drug, taking days or weeks to develop
d) None of the above
Ans : b
14. Tolerance and drug resistance can be a consequence of:
a) Drug dependence
b) Increased metabolic degradation
c) Depressed renal drug excretion
d) Activation of a drug after hepatic first-pass
Ans : b
15. Tolerance develops because of:
a) Diminished absorption
b) Rapid excretion of a drug
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above
Ans : d
16. The situation when failure to continue administering the drug results in serious psychological and somatic disturbances is
called?
a) Tachyphylaxis
b) Sensibilization
c) Abstinence syndrome
d) Idiosyncrasy
Ans : c
17. What is the type of drug-to-drug interaction which is the result of interaction at receptor, cell, enzyme or organ level?
a) Pharmacodynamic interaction
b) Physical and chemical interaction
c) Pharmaceutical interaction
d) Pharmacokinetic interaction
Ans : a
18. If two drugs with the same effect, taken together, produce an effect that is equal in magnitude to the sum of the effects of
the drugs given individually, it is called as:
a) Antagonism
b) Potentiation
c) Additive effect
d) None of the above
Ans : c
19. The types of antagonism are:
a) Summarized
b) Potentiated
c) Additive
d) Competitive
Ans : d
20. A teratogenic action is:
a) Toxic action on the liver
b) Negative action on the fetus causing fetal malformation
c) Toxic action on blood system
d) Toxic action on kidneys
Ans : b
Pharmacokinetics MCQ Questions
Pharmacokinetics MCQ Questions
Pharmacology questions: MCQs
001. Pharmacokinetics is:
a) The study of biological and therapeutic effects of drugs
b) The study of absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of drugs
c) The study of mechanisms of drug action
d) The study of methods of new drug development
002. What does “pharmacokinetics” include?
a) Complications of drug therapy
b) Drug biotransformation in the organism
c) Influence of drugs on metabolism processes
d) Influence of drugs on genes
002. What does “pharmacokinetics” include?
a) Pharmacological effects of drugs
b) Unwanted effects of drugs
c) Chemical structure of a medicinal agent
d) Distribution of drugs in the organism
003. What does “pharmacokinetics” include?
a) Localization of drug action
b) Mechanisms of drug action
c) Excretion of substances
d) Interaction of substances
004. The main mechanism of most drugs absorption in GI tract is:
a) Active transport (carrier-mediated diffusion)
b) Filtration (aqueous diffusion)
c) Endocytosis and exocytosis
d) Passive diffusion (lipid diffusion)
005. What kind of substances can’t permeate membranes by passive diffusion?
a) Lipid-soluble
b) Non-ionized substances
c) Hydrophobic substances
d) Hydrophilic substances
006. A hydrophilic medicinal agent has the following property:
a) Low ability to penetrate through the cell membrane lipids
b) Penetrate through membranes by means of endocytosis
c) Easy permeation through the blood-brain barrier
d) High reabsorption in renal tubules
007. What is implied by «active transport»?
a) Transport of drugs trough a membrane by means of diffusion
b) Transport without energy consumption
c) Engulf of drug by a cell membrane with a new vesicle formation
d) Transport against concentration gradient
008. What does the term “bioavailability” mean?
a) Plasma protein binding degree of substance
b) Permeability through the brain-blood barrier
c) Fraction of an uncharged drug reaching the systemic circulation following any route administration
d) Amount of a substance in urine relative to the initial doze
009. The reasons determing bioavailability are:
a) Rheological parameters of blood
b) Amount of a substance obtained orally and quantity of intakes
c) Extent of absorption and hepatic first-pass effect
d) Glomerular filtration rate
010. Pick out the appropriate alimentary route of administration when passage of drugs through liver is minimized:
a) Oral
b) Transdermal
c) Rectal
d) Intraduodenal
011. Which route of drug administration is most likely to lead to the first-pass effect?
a) Sublingual
6
b) Oral
c) Intravenous
d) Intramuscular
012. What is characteristic of the oral route?
a) Fast onset of effect
b) Absorption depends on GI tract secretion and motor function
c) A drug reaches the blood passing the liver
d) The sterilization of medicinal forms is obligatory
013. Tick the feature of the sublingual route:
a) Pretty fast absorption
b) A drug is exposed to gastric secretion
c) A drug is exposed more prominent liver metabolism
d) A drug can be administrated in a variety of doses
014. Pick out the parenteral route of medicinal agent administration:
a) Rectal
b) Oral
c) Sublingual
d) Inhalation
015. Parenteral administration:
a) Cannot be used with unconsciousness patients
b) Generally results in a less accurate dosage than oral administration
c) Usually produces a more rapid response than oral administration
d) Is too slow for emergency use
016. What is characteristic of the intramuscular route of drug administration?
a) Only water solutions can be injected
b) Oily solutions can be injected
c) Opportunity of hypertonic solution injections
d) The action develops slower, than at oral administration
017. Intravenous injections are more suitable for oily solutions:
a) True
b) False
018. Correct statements listing characteristics of a particular route of drug administration include all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Intravenous administration provides a rapid response
b) Intramuscular administration requires a sterile technique
c) Inhalation provides slow access to the general circulation
d) Subcutaneous administration may cause local irritation
019. Most of drugs are distributed homogeneously.
a) True
b) False
020. Biological barriers include all except:
a) Renal tubules
b) Cell membranes
c) Capillary walls
d) Placenta
021. What is the reason of complicated penetration of some drugs through brain-blood barrier?
a) High lipid solubility of a drug
b) Meningitis
c) Absence of pores in the brain capillary endothelium
d) High endocytosis degree in a brain capillary
022. The volume of distribution (Vd) relates:
a) Single to a daily dose of an administrated drug
b) An administrated dose to a body weight
c) An uncharged drug reaching the systemic circulation
d) The amount of a drug in the body to the concentration of a drug in plasma
023. For the calculation of the volume of distribution (Vd) one must take into account:
a) Concentration of a substance in plasma
b) Concentration of substance in urine
c) Therapeutical width of drug action
d) A daily dose of drug
024. A small amount of the volume of distribution is common for lipophylic substances easy penetrating through barriers and
widely distributing in plasma, interstitial and cell fluids:
7
a) True
b) False
025. The term “biotransformation” includes the following:
a) Accumulation of substances in a fat tissue
b) Binding of substances with plasma proteins
c) Accumulation of substances in a tissue
d) Process of physicochemical and biochemical alteration of a drug in the body
026. Biotransformation of the drugs is to render them:
a) Less ionized
b) More pharmacologically active
c) More lipid soluble
d) Less lipid soluble
027. Tick the drug type for which microsomal oxidation is the most prominent:
a) Lipid soluble
b) Water soluble
c) Low molecular weight
d) High molecular weight
028. Pick out the right statement:
a) Microsomal oxidation always results in inactivation of a compound
b) Microsomal oxidation results in a decrease of compound toxicity
c) Microsomal oxidation results in an increase of ionization and water solubility of a drug
d) Microsomal oxidation results in an increase of lipid solubility of a drug thus its excretion from the organism is facilitated
029. Stimulation of liver microsomal enzymes can:
a) Require the dose increase of some drugs
b) Require the dose decrease of some drugs
c) Prolong the duration of the action of a drug
d) Intensify the unwanted reaction of a drug
030. Metabolic transformation (phase 1) is:
a) Acetylation and methylation of substances
b) Transformation of substances due to oxidation, reduction or hydrolysis
c) Glucuronide formation
d) Binding to plasma proteins
031. Biotransformation of a medicinal substance results in:
a) Faster urinary excretion
b) Slower urinary excretion
c) Easier distribution in organism
d) Higher binding to membranes
032. Conjugation is:
a) Process of drug reduction by special enzymes
b) Process of drug oxidation by special oxidases
c) Coupling of a drug with an endogenous substrate
d) Solubilization in lipids
033. Which of the following processes proceeds in the second phase of biotransformation?
a) Acetylation
b) Reduction
c) Oxidation
d) Hydrolysis
034. Conjugation of a drug includes the following EXCEPT:
a) Glucoronidation
b) Sulfate formation
c) Hydrolysis
d) Methylation
035. Metabolic transformation and conjugation usually results in an increase of a substance biological activity:
a) True
b) False
036. In case of liver disorders accompanied by a decline in microsomal enzyme activity the duration of action of some drugs
is:
a) Decreased
b) Enlarged
c) Remained unchanged
d) Changed insignificantly
8
037. Half life (t ½) is the time required to:
a) Change the amount of a drug in plasma by half during elimination
b) Metabolize a half of an introduced drug into the active metabolite
c) Absorb a half of an introduced drug
d) Bind a half of an introduced drug to plasma proteins
038. Half life (t ½) doesn’t depend on:
a) Biotransformation
b) Time of drug absorption
c) Concentration of a drug in plasma
d) Rate of drug elimination
039. Elimination is expressed as follows:
a) Rate of renal tubular reabsorption
b) Clearance speed of some volume of blood from substance
c) Time required to decrease the amount of drug in plasma by one-half
d) Clearance of an organism from a xenobiotic
040. Elimination rate constant (Kelim) is defined by the following parameter:
a) Rate of absorption
b) Maximal concentration of a substance in plasma
c) Highest single dose
d) Half life (t ½)
041. The most rapid eliminated drugs are those with high glomerular filtration rate and actively secreted but aren’t passively
reabsorbed:
a) True
b) False
042. Systemic clearance (CLs) is related with:
a) Only the concentration of substances in plasma
b) Only the elimination rate constant
c) Volume of distribution, half life and elimination rate constant
d) Bioavailability and half life
Pharmacology questions: MCQs
001. Pharmacokinetics is:
a) The study of biological and therapeutic effects of drugs
b) The study of absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of drugs
c) The study of mechanisms of drug action
d) The study of methods of new drug development
002. What does “pharmacokinetics” include?
a) Complications of drug therapy
b) Drug biotransformation in the organism
c) Influence of drugs on metabolism processes
d) Influence of drugs on genes
002. What does “pharmacokinetics” include?
a) Pharmacological effects of drugs
b) Unwanted effects of drugs
c) Chemical structure of a medicinal agent
d) Distribution of drugs in the organism
003. What does “pharmacokinetics” include?
a) Localization of drug action
b) Mechanisms of drug action
c) Excretion of substances
d) Interaction of substances
004. The main mechanism of most drugs absorption in GI tract is:
a) Active transport (carrier-mediated diffusion)
b) Filtration (aqueous diffusion)
c) Endocytosis and exocytosis
d) Passive diffusion (lipid diffusion)
005. What kind of substances can’t permeate membranes by passive diffusion?
a) Lipid-soluble
b) Non-ionized substances
c) Hydrophobic substances
d) Hydrophilic substances
006. A hydrophilic medicinal agent has the following property:
a) Low ability to penetrate through the cell membrane lipids
b) Penetrate through membranes by means of endocytosis
c) Easy permeation through the blood-brain barrier
d) High reabsorption in renal tubules
007. What is implied by «active transport»?
a) Transport of drugs trough a membrane by means of diffusion
b) Transport without energy consumption
c) Engulf of drug by a cell membrane with a new vesicle formation
d) Transport against concentration gradient
008. What does the term “bioavailability” mean?
a) Plasma protein binding degree of substance
b) Permeability through the brain-blood barrier
c) Fraction of an uncharged drug reaching the systemic circulation following any route administration
d) Amount of a substance in urine relative to the initial doze
009. The reasons determing bioavailability are:
a) Rheological parameters of blood
b) Amount of a substance obtained orally and quantity of intakes
c) Extent of absorption and hepatic first-pass effect
d) Glomerular filtration rate
010. Pick out the appropriate alimentary route of administration when passage of drugs through liver is minimized:
a) Oral
b) Transdermal
c) Rectal
d) Intraduodenal
011. Which route of drug administration is most likely to lead to the first-pass effect?
a) Sublingual
6
b) Oral
c) Intravenous
d) Intramuscular
012. What is characteristic of the oral route?
a) Fast onset of effect
b) Absorption depends on GI tract secretion and motor function
c) A drug reaches the blood passing the liver
d) The sterilization of medicinal forms is obligatory
013. Tick the feature of the sublingual route:
a) Pretty fast absorption
b) A drug is exposed to gastric secretion
c) A drug is exposed more prominent liver metabolism
d) A drug can be administrated in a variety of doses
014. Pick out the parenteral route of medicinal agent administration:
a) Rectal
b) Oral
c) Sublingual
d) Inhalation
015. Parenteral administration:
a) Cannot be used with unconsciousness patients
b) Generally results in a less accurate dosage than oral administration
c) Usually produces a more rapid response than oral administration
d) Is too slow for emergency use
016. What is characteristic of the intramuscular route of drug administration?
a) Only water solutions can be injected
b) Oily solutions can be injected
c) Opportunity of hypertonic solution injections
d) The action develops slower, than at oral administration
017. Intravenous injections are more suitable for oily solutions:
a) True
b) False
018. Correct statements listing characteristics of a particular route of drug administration include all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Intravenous administration provides a rapid response
b) Intramuscular administration requires a sterile technique
c) Inhalation provides slow access to the general circulation
d) Subcutaneous administration may cause local irritation
019. Most of drugs are distributed homogeneously.
a) True
b) False
020. Biological barriers include all except:
a) Renal tubules
b) Cell membranes
c) Capillary walls
d) Placenta
021. What is the reason of complicated penetration of some drugs through brain-blood barrier?
a) High lipid solubility of a drug
b) Meningitis
c) Absence of pores in the brain capillary endothelium
d) High endocytosis degree in a brain capillary
022. The volume of distribution (Vd) relates:
a) Single to a daily dose of an administrated drug
b) An administrated dose to a body weight
c) An uncharged drug reaching the systemic circulation
d) The amount of a drug in the body to the concentration of a drug in plasma
023. For the calculation of the volume of distribution (Vd) one must take into account:
a) Concentration of a substance in plasma
b) Concentration of substance in urine
c) Therapeutical width of drug action
d) A daily dose of drug
024. A small amount of the volume of distribution is common for lipophylic substances easy penetrating through barriers and
widely distributing in plasma, interstitial and cell fluids:
7
a) True
b) False
025. The term “biotransformation” includes the following:
a) Accumulation of substances in a fat tissue
b) Binding of substances with plasma proteins
c) Accumulation of substances in a tissue
d) Process of physicochemical and biochemical alteration of a drug in the body
026. Biotransformation of the drugs is to render them:
a) Less ionized
b) More pharmacologically active
c) More lipid soluble
d) Less lipid soluble
027. Tick the drug type for which microsomal oxidation is the most prominent:
a) Lipid soluble
b) Water soluble
c) Low molecular weight
d) High molecular weight
028. Pick out the right statement:
a) Microsomal oxidation always results in inactivation of a compound
b) Microsomal oxidation results in a decrease of compound toxicity
c) Microsomal oxidation results in an increase of ionization and water solubility of a drug
d) Microsomal oxidation results in an increase of lipid solubility of a drug thus its excretion from the organism is facilitated
029. Stimulation of liver microsomal enzymes can:
a) Require the dose increase of some drugs
b) Require the dose decrease of some drugs
c) Prolong the duration of the action of a drug
d) Intensify the unwanted reaction of a drug
030. Metabolic transformation (phase 1) is:
a) Acetylation and methylation of substances
b) Transformation of substances due to oxidation, reduction or hydrolysis
c) Glucuronide formation
d) Binding to plasma proteins
031. Biotransformation of a medicinal substance results in:
a) Faster urinary excretion
b) Slower urinary excretion
c) Easier distribution in organism
d) Higher binding to membranes
032. Conjugation is:
a) Process of drug reduction by special enzymes
b) Process of drug oxidation by special oxidases
c) Coupling of a drug with an endogenous substrate
d) Solubilization in lipids
033. Which of the following processes proceeds in the second phase of biotransformation?
a) Acetylation
b) Reduction
c) Oxidation
d) Hydrolysis
034. Conjugation of a drug includes the following EXCEPT:
a) Glucoronidation
b) Sulfate formation
c) Hydrolysis
d) Methylation
035. Metabolic transformation and conjugation usually results in an increase of a substance biological activity:
a) True
b) False
036. In case of liver disorders accompanied by a decline in microsomal enzyme activity the duration of action of some drugs
is:
a) Decreased
b) Enlarged
c) Remained unchanged
d) Changed insignificantly
8
037. Half life (t ½) is the time required to:
a) Change the amount of a drug in plasma by half during elimination
b) Metabolize a half of an introduced drug into the active metabolite
c) Absorb a half of an introduced drug
d) Bind a half of an introduced drug to plasma proteins
038. Half life (t ½) doesn’t depend on:
a) Biotransformation
b) Time of drug absorption
c) Concentration of a drug in plasma
d) Rate of drug elimination
039. Elimination is expressed as follows:
a) Rate of renal tubular reabsorption
b) Clearance speed of some volume of blood from substance
c) Time required to decrease the amount of drug in plasma by one-half
d) Clearance of an organism from a xenobiotic
040. Elimination rate constant (Kelim) is defined by the following parameter:
a) Rate of absorption
b) Maximal concentration of a substance in plasma
c) Highest single dose
d) Half life (t ½)
041. The most rapid eliminated drugs are those with high glomerular filtration rate and actively secreted but aren’t passively
reabsorbed:
a) True
b) False
042. Systemic clearance (CLs) is related with:
a) Only the concentration of substances in plasma
b) Only the elimination rate constant
c) Volume of distribution, half life and elimination rate constant
d) Bioavailability and half life
SBI BANK PO PREVIOUS YEAR SOLVED PAPER
SBI BANK PO PREVIOUS YEAR SOLVED PAPER (Held on July 6 , 2008)
SBI BANK PO (PT) SOLVED PAPER (Held on July 6 , 2008)
General English
Directions—(Q. 41–50) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.
The yearly festival was close at hand. The store room was packed with silk fabrics. gold ornaments, clay bowls full of sweet curd and platefuls of sweetmeats. The orders had been placed with shops well in advance. The mother was sending out gifts to everyone.
The eldest son, a government servant, lived with his wife and children in far off lands. The second son had left home at an early age. As a merchant he travelled all over the world. The other sons had split up over petty squabbles, and they now lived in homes of their own. The relatives were spread all across the world. They rarely visited. The youngest son, left in the company of a servant, was soon bored and stood at the door all day long, waiting and watching. His mother, thrilled and excited, loaded the presents on trays and plates, covered them with colourful kerchiefs, and sent them off with maids and servants. The neighbours looked on.
The day came to an end. All the presents had been sent off.
The child came back into the house and dejectedly said to his mother, “Maa, you gave a present to everyone, but you didn’t give me anything !”
His mother laughed, “I have given all the gifts away to everyone, now see what’s left for you.” She kissed him on the forehead.
The child said in a tearful voice, “Don’t I get a gift ?”
“You’ll get it when you go far away.”
“But when I am close to you, don’t I get something from your own hands ?”
His mother reached out her arms and drew him to her. “This is all I have in my own hands. It is the most precious of all.”
41. Why did the woman's second son travel ?
(A) He was restless by nature
(B) He did not want to stay at home
(C) He was rich and could afford to travel
(D) His job was such that he had to travel
(E) None of these
42. Why did the woman’s eldest son not attend the festival ?
(A) He was not on good terms with his youngest brother who lived at home
(B) He had quarrelled with his mother
(C) His wife did not allow him to return home
(D) His job prevented him from taking leave
(E) None of these
43. How did the woman prepare for the festival ?
1. She bought expensive gifts for her children and neighbours.
2. She ordered her servants to prepare sweets and food well in advance.
3. She made sure that her youngest child was looked after so that he wouldn’t be bored.
(A) None
(B) Only 1
(C) Only 2
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
44. What did the youngest child do while his mother was busy ?
1. He waited for a chance to steal some sweetmeats.
2. He pestered his mother to give him a present.
3. He stood at the door with servants.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 3
(D) Only 3
(E) None of these
45. Which of the following can be said about the woman ?
(A) She was a widow who had brought up her children single handedly
(B) She was not a good mother since her children had left home at an early age
(C) She enjoyed sending her family gifts at festival time
(D) She gave expensive presents to show that she was wealthy
(E) She rarely visited her grand-children because they all lived abroad
46. What did the boy receive from his mother ?
(A) She taught him the value of patience
(B) She encouraged him to grow up and live independently like his brothers
(C) She showed him the importance of giving expensive gifts
(D) She gave him a hug to express her love
(E) None of these
47. Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage ?
(A) The woman usually ignored her youngest son
(B) The woman’s eldest son lived abroad
(C) The members of the woman’s family did not care about her
(D) The woman made all the preparations herself since she did not want to burden the servants
(E) The woman sent gifts to her children to ensure that they visited her
Directions—(Q. 48–49) Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
48. Left
(A) Gone
(B) Quit
(C) Remaining
(D) Disappeared
(E) Forgot
49. Packed
A) Filled
(B) Squeezed
(C) Crowd
(D) Collected
(E) Untidy
50. Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word dejectedly as used in the passage.
(A) Calmly
(B) Happily
(C) Willingly
(D) Fortunately
(E) Softly
Directions—(Q. 51–55) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)
51. Many multinational companies (A) / have not been as (B) /successful in India (C) /than we expected. (D) No error (E)
52. He has ruined (A) /his eyesight (B) /by not using (C) /his spectacles regularly. (D) No error (E)
53. Mostly of the (A) /newly recruited officers (B) /have no experience (C) /in the banking sector. (D) No error (E)
54. The resignation of (A) /one of our directors (B) /have caused the price (C) / of shares to fall. (D) No error (E)
55. There are many (A) /ways of which (B) /inflation can (C) /be measured. (D) No error (E)
Directions—(Q. 56–60) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No correction is required.’ mark (E) as the answer.
56. Each of the loan must be approved by the Branch Manager—
(A) Every loan
(B) Each one of the loan
(C) Any of the loan
(D) All of the loan
(E) No correction required
57. The issue was taken before the Municipal Corporation meeting last week—
(A) Taking place at
(B) Taken after
(C) Being taken in
(D) Taken up at
(E) No correction required
58. He has asked for the names of those employees involved in the project.
(A) had asked
(B) having asked about
(C) was asked that
(D) is asking
(E) no correction required
59. Considerate the traffic, it is better to leave for the airport an hour early—
A) While considering
(B) Consideration of
(C) Considering
(D) Being considerate to
(E) No correction required
SBI BANK PO (PT) SOLVED PAPER (Held on July 6 , 2008)
General English
60. He is a good leader, knowing that to motivate his employees to achieve—
(A) That known when
(B) Who knows how
(C) Which knows how
(D) Knowing what
(E) No correction required
Directions—(Q. 61–65) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(1) The able bodied men of the tribe gathered to discuss how to climb the mountain.
(2) As part of their plundering they kidnapped a baby of one of the families.
(3) One day the mountain tribe invaded those living in the valley.
(4) “We couldn’t climb the mountain. How could you?”, they asked, “It wasn’t your baby !” she replied.
(5) There were two tribes in the Andes –one lived in the valley and the other high up in the mountains.
(6) Two days later they noticed the child’s mother coming down the mountain that they hadn’t yet figured out how to climb.
61. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)
(E) (5)
62. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (6)
(B) (5)
(C) (4)
(D) (3)
(E) (2)
63. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)
(E) (5)
64. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)
(E) (5)
65. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)
(E) (5)
Directions—(Q. 66–70): In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word, which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence mark (E) i.e., all correct as your answer.
66. The income (A) of many people in rural (B) India is not adequate (C) to satisfy (D) their basic needs. All correct (E)
67. He is always (A) prompt (B) in caring (C) out instructions. (D) All correct (E)
68. The revized (A) rates (B) of interest will be effective (C) immediately. (D) All correct (E)
69. Such transactions (A) are quiet (B) expensive (C) and time consuming (D) for customers. All correct (E)
70. The guidelines (A) of the new scheme (B) are expected (C) to be finally (D) soon. All correct (E)
Directions—(Q. 71–80) In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words/ phrases are suggested one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
I used to look …(71)… to the holidays. I was usually …(72)… to my uncle’s house where I …(73)… his children. I did not get paid a salary for …(74)… What I received in return however, was far more …(75)… My uncle was an avid reader. During the time I spent with his family I had an …(76)… to read the vast amount of books and magazines that he possessed. This improved my English to some …(77)… Reading became my new …(78–79)… spending my pocket money on a ticket to the cinema I began to …(80)… books. This has benefited me greatly.
71. (A) forward
(B) towards
(C) backward
(D) up
(E) around
72. (A) went
(B) sent
(C) visited
(D) travelled
(E) gone
73. (A) cared
(B) occupy
(C) guarded
(D) taught
(E) played
74. (A) them
(B) whom
(C) this
(D) now
(E) which
75. (A) expensive
(B) deserving
(C) helping
(D) demanding
(E) valuable
76. (A) opportunity
(B) ability
(C) use
(D) encouragement
(E) achievement
77. (A) distance
(B) extent
(C) time
(D) limits
(E) degrees
78. (A) activity
(B) hope
(C) hobby
(D) duty
(E) worship
79. (A) despite
(B) though
(C) by
(D) instead of
(E) while
80. (A) sell
(B) read
(C) exchange
(D) invest
(E) buy
Answers:
41. (D) 42. (E) 43. (A) 44. (D)
45. (C) 46. (D) 47. (B)
48. (C) 49. (A) 50. (C)
51. (D) Replace ‘than’ with ‘as’.
52. (E)
53. (A) Change ‘Mostly’ to ‘Most’.
54. (C) Change ‘have’ to ‘has’.
55. (B) Replace ‘of’ with ‘in’.
56. (A) 57. (D) 58. (E) 59. (C) 60. (B)
61. (C) 62. (A) 63. (E) 64. (D) 65. (B)
66. (E) 67. (C) 68. (A) 69. (E) 70. (D)
71. (A) 72. (B) 73. (D) 74. (C) 75. (E)
76. (A) 77. (B) 78. (C) 79. (D) 80. (E)
SBI BANK PO (PT) SOLVED PAPER (Held on July 6 , 2008)
General English
Directions—(Q. 41–50) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.
The yearly festival was close at hand. The store room was packed with silk fabrics. gold ornaments, clay bowls full of sweet curd and platefuls of sweetmeats. The orders had been placed with shops well in advance. The mother was sending out gifts to everyone.
The eldest son, a government servant, lived with his wife and children in far off lands. The second son had left home at an early age. As a merchant he travelled all over the world. The other sons had split up over petty squabbles, and they now lived in homes of their own. The relatives were spread all across the world. They rarely visited. The youngest son, left in the company of a servant, was soon bored and stood at the door all day long, waiting and watching. His mother, thrilled and excited, loaded the presents on trays and plates, covered them with colourful kerchiefs, and sent them off with maids and servants. The neighbours looked on.
The day came to an end. All the presents had been sent off.
The child came back into the house and dejectedly said to his mother, “Maa, you gave a present to everyone, but you didn’t give me anything !”
His mother laughed, “I have given all the gifts away to everyone, now see what’s left for you.” She kissed him on the forehead.
The child said in a tearful voice, “Don’t I get a gift ?”
“You’ll get it when you go far away.”
“But when I am close to you, don’t I get something from your own hands ?”
His mother reached out her arms and drew him to her. “This is all I have in my own hands. It is the most precious of all.”
41. Why did the woman's second son travel ?
(A) He was restless by nature
(B) He did not want to stay at home
(C) He was rich and could afford to travel
(D) His job was such that he had to travel
(E) None of these
42. Why did the woman’s eldest son not attend the festival ?
(A) He was not on good terms with his youngest brother who lived at home
(B) He had quarrelled with his mother
(C) His wife did not allow him to return home
(D) His job prevented him from taking leave
(E) None of these
43. How did the woman prepare for the festival ?
1. She bought expensive gifts for her children and neighbours.
2. She ordered her servants to prepare sweets and food well in advance.
3. She made sure that her youngest child was looked after so that he wouldn’t be bored.
(A) None
(B) Only 1
(C) Only 2
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
44. What did the youngest child do while his mother was busy ?
1. He waited for a chance to steal some sweetmeats.
2. He pestered his mother to give him a present.
3. He stood at the door with servants.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 3
(D) Only 3
(E) None of these
45. Which of the following can be said about the woman ?
(A) She was a widow who had brought up her children single handedly
(B) She was not a good mother since her children had left home at an early age
(C) She enjoyed sending her family gifts at festival time
(D) She gave expensive presents to show that she was wealthy
(E) She rarely visited her grand-children because they all lived abroad
46. What did the boy receive from his mother ?
(A) She taught him the value of patience
(B) She encouraged him to grow up and live independently like his brothers
(C) She showed him the importance of giving expensive gifts
(D) She gave him a hug to express her love
(E) None of these
47. Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage ?
(A) The woman usually ignored her youngest son
(B) The woman’s eldest son lived abroad
(C) The members of the woman’s family did not care about her
(D) The woman made all the preparations herself since she did not want to burden the servants
(E) The woman sent gifts to her children to ensure that they visited her
Directions—(Q. 48–49) Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
48. Left
(A) Gone
(B) Quit
(C) Remaining
(D) Disappeared
(E) Forgot
49. Packed
A) Filled
(B) Squeezed
(C) Crowd
(D) Collected
(E) Untidy
50. Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word dejectedly as used in the passage.
(A) Calmly
(B) Happily
(C) Willingly
(D) Fortunately
(E) Softly
Directions—(Q. 51–55) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)
51. Many multinational companies (A) / have not been as (B) /successful in India (C) /than we expected. (D) No error (E)
52. He has ruined (A) /his eyesight (B) /by not using (C) /his spectacles regularly. (D) No error (E)
53. Mostly of the (A) /newly recruited officers (B) /have no experience (C) /in the banking sector. (D) No error (E)
54. The resignation of (A) /one of our directors (B) /have caused the price (C) / of shares to fall. (D) No error (E)
55. There are many (A) /ways of which (B) /inflation can (C) /be measured. (D) No error (E)
Directions—(Q. 56–60) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No correction is required.’ mark (E) as the answer.
56. Each of the loan must be approved by the Branch Manager—
(A) Every loan
(B) Each one of the loan
(C) Any of the loan
(D) All of the loan
(E) No correction required
57. The issue was taken before the Municipal Corporation meeting last week—
(A) Taking place at
(B) Taken after
(C) Being taken in
(D) Taken up at
(E) No correction required
58. He has asked for the names of those employees involved in the project.
(A) had asked
(B) having asked about
(C) was asked that
(D) is asking
(E) no correction required
59. Considerate the traffic, it is better to leave for the airport an hour early—
A) While considering
(B) Consideration of
(C) Considering
(D) Being considerate to
(E) No correction required
SBI BANK PO (PT) SOLVED PAPER (Held on July 6 , 2008)
General English
60. He is a good leader, knowing that to motivate his employees to achieve—
(A) That known when
(B) Who knows how
(C) Which knows how
(D) Knowing what
(E) No correction required
Directions—(Q. 61–65) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(1) The able bodied men of the tribe gathered to discuss how to climb the mountain.
(2) As part of their plundering they kidnapped a baby of one of the families.
(3) One day the mountain tribe invaded those living in the valley.
(4) “We couldn’t climb the mountain. How could you?”, they asked, “It wasn’t your baby !” she replied.
(5) There were two tribes in the Andes –one lived in the valley and the other high up in the mountains.
(6) Two days later they noticed the child’s mother coming down the mountain that they hadn’t yet figured out how to climb.
61. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)
(E) (5)
62. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (6)
(B) (5)
(C) (4)
(D) (3)
(E) (2)
63. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)
(E) (5)
64. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)
(E) (5)
65. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)
(E) (5)
Directions—(Q. 66–70): In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word, which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence mark (E) i.e., all correct as your answer.
66. The income (A) of many people in rural (B) India is not adequate (C) to satisfy (D) their basic needs. All correct (E)
67. He is always (A) prompt (B) in caring (C) out instructions. (D) All correct (E)
68. The revized (A) rates (B) of interest will be effective (C) immediately. (D) All correct (E)
69. Such transactions (A) are quiet (B) expensive (C) and time consuming (D) for customers. All correct (E)
70. The guidelines (A) of the new scheme (B) are expected (C) to be finally (D) soon. All correct (E)
Directions—(Q. 71–80) In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words/ phrases are suggested one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
I used to look …(71)… to the holidays. I was usually …(72)… to my uncle’s house where I …(73)… his children. I did not get paid a salary for …(74)… What I received in return however, was far more …(75)… My uncle was an avid reader. During the time I spent with his family I had an …(76)… to read the vast amount of books and magazines that he possessed. This improved my English to some …(77)… Reading became my new …(78–79)… spending my pocket money on a ticket to the cinema I began to …(80)… books. This has benefited me greatly.
71. (A) forward
(B) towards
(C) backward
(D) up
(E) around
72. (A) went
(B) sent
(C) visited
(D) travelled
(E) gone
73. (A) cared
(B) occupy
(C) guarded
(D) taught
(E) played
74. (A) them
(B) whom
(C) this
(D) now
(E) which
75. (A) expensive
(B) deserving
(C) helping
(D) demanding
(E) valuable
76. (A) opportunity
(B) ability
(C) use
(D) encouragement
(E) achievement
77. (A) distance
(B) extent
(C) time
(D) limits
(E) degrees
78. (A) activity
(B) hope
(C) hobby
(D) duty
(E) worship
79. (A) despite
(B) though
(C) by
(D) instead of
(E) while
80. (A) sell
(B) read
(C) exchange
(D) invest
(E) buy
Answers:
41. (D) 42. (E) 43. (A) 44. (D)
45. (C) 46. (D) 47. (B)
48. (C) 49. (A) 50. (C)
51. (D) Replace ‘than’ with ‘as’.
52. (E)
53. (A) Change ‘Mostly’ to ‘Most’.
54. (C) Change ‘have’ to ‘has’.
55. (B) Replace ‘of’ with ‘in’.
56. (A) 57. (D) 58. (E) 59. (C) 60. (B)
61. (C) 62. (A) 63. (E) 64. (D) 65. (B)
66. (E) 67. (C) 68. (A) 69. (E) 70. (D)
71. (A) 72. (B) 73. (D) 74. (C) 75. (E)
76. (A) 77. (B) 78. (C) 79. (D) 80. (E)
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