Solved Question Papers, Answer : Probationary Officer Reasoning
General intelligence and reasoning solved papers
1. Rearrange the first four letters, in any way, of the word DECISION. Find how many words can be formed by using all the four words.
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) More than three
(e) No meaningful word is formed
Ans. (a)
2. A number of friends decided to go on a picnic and planned to spend Rs 960 on food. Four of them, however, did not turn up. As a consequence, the remaining ones had to contribute Rs 40 each extra. The number of those who attended the picnic was:
(a) 8
(b) 12
(c) 16
(d) 24
Ans. (a)
3. In a caravan, in addition to 50 hens, there are 45 goats and 8 camels with some keepers. If the total number of feet be 224 more than the number of heads in the caravan, find the number of keepers.
(a) 5
(b) 8
(c) 10
(d) 15
Ans. (d)
Directions (Questions 4 and 5): Study the following information and answer the questions given below it:
There is a group of five persons K, G, H, R and J.
(i) K, G and H are intelligent
(ii) K, R and J are hard-working
(iii) R, H and J are honest and
(iv) K, G and J are ambitious
4. Which of the following persons is neither hardworking nor ambitious?
(a) K
(b) G
(c) H
(d) R
(e) None of these
Ans. (c)
5. Which of the following persons is neither honest nor hard working but is ambitious?
(a) K
(b) G
(c) R
(d) H
(e) None of these
Ans. (b)
6. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and Fare sitting in a circle. B is between F and C; A is between E and D; F is to the left of D. Who is between A and F?
(a) B
(b) C
(c) D
(d) A
(e) F
Ans. (c)
7. In a group of cows and hens, the number of legs is 14 more than twice the number of heads. How many cows are in the group?
(a) 5
(b) 7
(c) 11
(d) 12
(e) 9
Ans. (b)
8. If 36 ? 32 = 9623; 25 ? 82 = 8522; 68 ? 75 = 7856, then 47 ? 52 = ?
(a) 5742
(b) 5274
(c) 7427
(d) 5724
(e) 2574
Ans. (d)
9. If 32 ? 41 = 15; 51 ? 34 = 46; 41 ? 52 = 37, then 87 ? 53 = ?
(a) 68
(b) 64
(c) 85
(d) 18
(e) 42
Ans. (d)
10. Which letter occurs most often in the word?
APPROPRIATE
(a) A
(b) E
(c) R
(d) P
Ans. (d)
11. How many independent words can be formed without changing the order of the letters and using each letter only once?
CAPABILITY
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) None
Ans. (b)
12. If it is possible to form a word with the first, fourth, seventh and eleventh letters of the word ‘SUPERFLOUS’, write the first letter of that word. Otherwise, X is the answer.
(a) S
(b) L
(c) O
(d) X
Ans. (d)
Directions (Questions 13 to 16): Each of the following questions is based on the following alphabet series.
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
13. Which letter is eighth to the left of sixteenth letter from the right end?
(a) B
(b) S
(c) C
(d) H
Ans. (c)
14. Which letter is exactly midway between H and S in the given alphabet?
(a) No such letter
(b) L
(c) M
(d) O
Ans. (a)
15. Which letter should be ninth letter to the left of ninth letter from the right, if the first half of the given alphabet is reversed.
(a) D
(b) E
(c) F
(d) I
Ans. (b)
16. If every even letter beginning from B is replaced by odd number starting with 3, which letter/number will be the third to the right of the tenth number/letter counting from your right.
(a) M
(b) S
(c) 11
(d) 21
Ans. (d)
17. Pointing out to a photograph, a man tells his friend, “She is the daughter of the only son of my father’s wife.†How is the girl related to the man in the photograph?
(a) Daughter
(b) Cousin
(c) Mother
(d) Sister
(e) Niece
Ans. (a)
18. Pointing to a man in a photograph, a woman said, “His brother’s father is the only son of my grand father.†How is the woman related to the man in the photograph?
(a) Mother
(b) Aunt
(c) Sister
(d) Daughter
(e) Grand mother
Ans. (c)
19. In a row of students of Ravi's class, Ravi is 17th from either end of the row. How many students are there in his class?
(a) 34
(b) 35
(c) 33
(d) 19
(e) 36
Ans. (c)
20. In a cricket season, India defeated Australia twice, West Indies defeated India twice, Australia defeated West Indies twice, India defeated New Zealand twice and West Indies defeated New Zealand twice which country has lost most number of times?
(a) India
(b) Australia
(c) New Zealand
(d) West Indies
(e) None of these
Ans. (c)
21. Six students A, B, C, D, Band F are sitting in a field. A and B are from Delhi while the rest are from Bangalore. D and F are tall while others are short A, C, Dare girls while others are boys. Which is the tall girl from Bangalore?
(a) C
(b) D
(c) E
(d) F
(e) None of these
Ans. (b)
Sunday, September 4, 2011
UGC NET Solved Model paper Music
UGC NET Solved Model paper Music
Sample Questions papers of competitive exams of india:Music
1. Andolan Sankhya of Pancham is?
(A) 240
(C) 320
(B)270
(D)360
2. The Book written by Pt.Damodar
(A) Sadrag Chandrodaya
(B) Sangeetraj
(C) Sangeet Ratnakar
(D) Sangeet Parijat
3. According to Modern Shruti Swara division, Pancham is placed on which Shruti?
(A)9th
(B) 10th
(C)11th
(D) 13th
4. Musician of Maihar Gharana
(A) Ustad Vilayat Khan
(B) Ustad Halim Zaffar Khan
(C) Ustad Alialcbar Khan
(D) Ustad Mushtak Au Khan
5. Author of Abhinav Bharti
(A) Bharat
(B) Dattil
(C) Abhinavgupta
(D) Kallinath
6. Author of Rag-Darpan
(A) Dr. Mahesh Saxena
(B) Pt. Omkar Nath Thakur
(C) Fakirullah
(D) Bharat
7. The views of Bhattnayak on Rasa is called?
(A) Uttpathivad
(B) Anukritivad
(C) Muktivad
(D) Abhivyaktivad
8. No. of Sanchari Bhava?
(A)23
(B) 13
(C)33
(D) 43
9. Chittasvaras interspersed with Jatis?
(A) Tillana
(B) Chitta Tanam
(C) Sollukettu
(D) Jatisvaram
10. Pann Panchamam corresponds to?
(A) Ahiri Raga
(B) Hindolam
(C) Malahari Raga
(D) Ehairavi
11. Author of Sangita Chandrika?
(A) Ahobala
(B) Attoor Krishna Pisharati
(C) Muttath Bhagavatar
(D) Damodara Misra
12. Mattakokila is an ancient?
(A)Venu
(B) Vina
(C)Yazh
(D) Drum
13. 2009 Padmasri awardee in Mizhavu
(A) Naryanan Namboothiri
(B) Madhava Chakyar
(C) Kalamandalam Gopi
(D) Kochu Govindan Pillai
14. Use of Rishabh in Pooriya Kalyan?
(A) Like Marwa
(B) Like Pooriya
(C) Like Poorvi
(D) Like Kalyan
15. Assertion and Reasoning— Assertion (A) : Any Art is recognised as full of aesthetics when the artist is successful in conveying
his expressions to the viewers! listeners through the medium brush, colours, words and sound.
Reasoning (R): Harmony bet ween the emotions of artist and receiver is desirable.
(A)(A) is true, but (R) is false
(B)(A) is false, but (R) is true
(C)Both (A) and (R) are true
(D)Both (A) and (R) are false
16. How many Alankaras have been described by Sharahgdeo?
(A)12
(B) 25
(C)63
(D) 13
17. The author of ‘Saundarya, Rasa Avam Sarigit’.
(A) Prof. Premlata Sharma
,(B) Dr. Aban Mistry
(C) Prof. Swatantra Sharma
(D) Prof. Pankaj Mala Sharma
18. ‘Aavap’ is a
(A) Sa-shabda Kriya
(B) Nishabda Kriya
(C) Prati Kriya
(D) Male Kriya
19. Match the following—
List-I
(a) Zakir Hussain
(b) Vikku Vinayak Ram
(c) Paighat Mani Ayyer
(d) Pagal Das
List-II
1. Mridangam
2. Ghatam
3. Pakhwaj
4. Tabla
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 4 2 1 3
20. Tabla artist of Farukkhabad Gharana?
(A)Ustad Ileus Hussain
(B)Pt. Sheetal Prasad Mishra
(C)Prof. Mukund Bhale
(D)Ustad Mohammad Akaram
21. Arrange them in chronological order according to time period.
Codes:
(A) Sharangdeo, Bharat, Jaidev,Matang
(B) Bharat, Matang, Jaidev,Sharangdeo
(C) Matang, Jaidev, Sharangdeo,Bharat
(D) Jaidev, Bharat, Matang,Sharangdeo
22. This is helpful in invoking Ehavas—
(A) Anubhav
(B) Uddipan
(C) Alamban
(D) Bibhav
23. Match the following—
List-I
(a) Pt. V. C. Jog
(b) Chitti Babu
(c) U. Amajad Au
(d) U. Latteef Ahmed
List-II
1. Veena Player
2. Violin Player
3. Tabla Player
4. Sarod Player
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 1 2 3 4
24. First musician felicitated with ‘Bharat Ratna’.
(A) Pt. Ravishankar
(B)Lata Mangeshkar
(C)M. S. Subbalakshmi
(D)Pt. Bhimsen Joshi
25. The propounder of Rasa
Theory
(A)Matang
(B) Bharat
(C)Ahobal
(D) Srinivas
Answers :
1 D
2 B
3 D
4 C
5 C
6 C
7 C
8 C
9 B
10 D
11 D
12 B
13 C
14 A
15 C
16 C
17 A
18 A
19 D
20 A
21 B
22 D
23 A
24 C
25 B
Sample Questions papers of competitive exams of india:Music
1. Andolan Sankhya of Pancham is?
(A) 240
(C) 320
(B)270
(D)360
2. The Book written by Pt.Damodar
(A) Sadrag Chandrodaya
(B) Sangeetraj
(C) Sangeet Ratnakar
(D) Sangeet Parijat
3. According to Modern Shruti Swara division, Pancham is placed on which Shruti?
(A)9th
(B) 10th
(C)11th
(D) 13th
4. Musician of Maihar Gharana
(A) Ustad Vilayat Khan
(B) Ustad Halim Zaffar Khan
(C) Ustad Alialcbar Khan
(D) Ustad Mushtak Au Khan
5. Author of Abhinav Bharti
(A) Bharat
(B) Dattil
(C) Abhinavgupta
(D) Kallinath
6. Author of Rag-Darpan
(A) Dr. Mahesh Saxena
(B) Pt. Omkar Nath Thakur
(C) Fakirullah
(D) Bharat
7. The views of Bhattnayak on Rasa is called?
(A) Uttpathivad
(B) Anukritivad
(C) Muktivad
(D) Abhivyaktivad
8. No. of Sanchari Bhava?
(A)23
(B) 13
(C)33
(D) 43
9. Chittasvaras interspersed with Jatis?
(A) Tillana
(B) Chitta Tanam
(C) Sollukettu
(D) Jatisvaram
10. Pann Panchamam corresponds to?
(A) Ahiri Raga
(B) Hindolam
(C) Malahari Raga
(D) Ehairavi
11. Author of Sangita Chandrika?
(A) Ahobala
(B) Attoor Krishna Pisharati
(C) Muttath Bhagavatar
(D) Damodara Misra
12. Mattakokila is an ancient?
(A)Venu
(B) Vina
(C)Yazh
(D) Drum
13. 2009 Padmasri awardee in Mizhavu
(A) Naryanan Namboothiri
(B) Madhava Chakyar
(C) Kalamandalam Gopi
(D) Kochu Govindan Pillai
14. Use of Rishabh in Pooriya Kalyan?
(A) Like Marwa
(B) Like Pooriya
(C) Like Poorvi
(D) Like Kalyan
15. Assertion and Reasoning— Assertion (A) : Any Art is recognised as full of aesthetics when the artist is successful in conveying
his expressions to the viewers! listeners through the medium brush, colours, words and sound.
Reasoning (R): Harmony bet ween the emotions of artist and receiver is desirable.
(A)(A) is true, but (R) is false
(B)(A) is false, but (R) is true
(C)Both (A) and (R) are true
(D)Both (A) and (R) are false
16. How many Alankaras have been described by Sharahgdeo?
(A)12
(B) 25
(C)63
(D) 13
17. The author of ‘Saundarya, Rasa Avam Sarigit’.
(A) Prof. Premlata Sharma
,(B) Dr. Aban Mistry
(C) Prof. Swatantra Sharma
(D) Prof. Pankaj Mala Sharma
18. ‘Aavap’ is a
(A) Sa-shabda Kriya
(B) Nishabda Kriya
(C) Prati Kriya
(D) Male Kriya
19. Match the following—
List-I
(a) Zakir Hussain
(b) Vikku Vinayak Ram
(c) Paighat Mani Ayyer
(d) Pagal Das
List-II
1. Mridangam
2. Ghatam
3. Pakhwaj
4. Tabla
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 4 2 1 3
20. Tabla artist of Farukkhabad Gharana?
(A)Ustad Ileus Hussain
(B)Pt. Sheetal Prasad Mishra
(C)Prof. Mukund Bhale
(D)Ustad Mohammad Akaram
21. Arrange them in chronological order according to time period.
Codes:
(A) Sharangdeo, Bharat, Jaidev,Matang
(B) Bharat, Matang, Jaidev,Sharangdeo
(C) Matang, Jaidev, Sharangdeo,Bharat
(D) Jaidev, Bharat, Matang,Sharangdeo
22. This is helpful in invoking Ehavas—
(A) Anubhav
(B) Uddipan
(C) Alamban
(D) Bibhav
23. Match the following—
List-I
(a) Pt. V. C. Jog
(b) Chitti Babu
(c) U. Amajad Au
(d) U. Latteef Ahmed
List-II
1. Veena Player
2. Violin Player
3. Tabla Player
4. Sarod Player
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 1 2 3 4
24. First musician felicitated with ‘Bharat Ratna’.
(A) Pt. Ravishankar
(B)Lata Mangeshkar
(C)M. S. Subbalakshmi
(D)Pt. Bhimsen Joshi
25. The propounder of Rasa
Theory
(A)Matang
(B) Bharat
(C)Ahobal
(D) Srinivas
Answers :
1 D
2 B
3 D
4 C
5 C
6 C
7 C
8 C
9 B
10 D
11 D
12 B
13 C
14 A
15 C
16 C
17 A
18 A
19 D
20 A
21 B
22 D
23 A
24 C
25 B
Home Science Objective Test Paper
Home Science Objective Test Paper
home science exam solved questions Free online mcq
1. What can excess of protein intake lead to?
(a) A feeling of wanting to eat more
(b) Vitamin A deficiency
(c) More calcium being excreted
(d) Constipation
2. Which enzyme does hydrochloric acid activate?
(a) Rennin
(b) Lactase
(c) Trypsin
(d) Pepsin
3. What is mitosis?
(a) The covering around the cell
(b) The protection against UV light
(c) The elimination of toxins from the.
(d) .The multiplication of cells
4. What is neuralgia?
(a) Shooting pains along the course of a nerve
(b) Pain down the back and outside of the thigh
(c) Disease of the basal ganglia
(d) Paralysis or weakness of one side of the face
5. Eversion is
(a) Moving the side of the sole of the foot outwards
(b) Pointing the toes upwards
(c) Pointing the toes downwards
(d) Moving the side of the sole of the foot inwards
6. How long should a cool down in an absolute beginners class be?
(a) 5 minutes
(b) 10 minutes
(c) 15 minutes
(d) 20 minutes
7. What is the cause of stretch marks?
(a) Loss of elasticity in the epidermis
(b) Loss of elasticity in the dermis
(c) Loss of elasticity in the subcutaneous layer
(d) Loss of elasticity in the muscles near the skin’s surface
8. The typical daily s intake is
(a) 1-3 gm
(b) 3-5 gm
(c) 6-9 gm
(d) 11-14 gm
9. If a person. habitually consumes 10 tablets a ay of vitamin-mineral supplements, which nutrient is least likely to cause toxicity?
(a) Vitamin E
(b) Vitamin A
(c) Vitamin D
(d) Iron
10. The number of kilocalories in one gram of fat is
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 7
(d) 9
11. Essential amino acids are
(a) composed entirely of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms
(b) synthesized by the body during metabolism
(c) in all protein foods of low biological value
(d) in all protein foods of high biological value
12. Polysaccharides are
(a) composed of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen atoms
(b) sweet-tasting, and contain one glucose and one fructose molecule
(c) the most complex group of carbohydrates, and include starch and dextrin
(d) difficult to digest, and so contribute little to energy stores
13. Malnutrition occurs when
(a) a child’s diet is lacking in protein
(b) energy intake is below the minimum required to maintain a healthy body
(c) there is an imbalance of the essential nutrients required to maintain a healthy body
(d) energy intake exceeds the body’s energy needs
14. Levels of cholesterol in the blood can be lowered by a diet that contains
(a) polyunsaturated fats
(b) low-density lipoproteins
(c) saturated fats
(d) trans fatty acids
15. In experiment an egg-white is heated in a test-tube, held in a beaker of boiling water. The result is an opaque white solid. The experiment demonstrates
(a) the coagulation of proteins
(b) the catabolism of essential amino acids
(c) acid and alkali reactions in food
(d) gelatinization
16. A person with coeliac disease should avoid eating
(a) rice and stir-fried vegetables
(b) fresh fruit salad and ice-cream
(c) tacos and mince
(d) cheese and whole meal bread sandwiches
17. Milk contains approximately what percent water?
(a) 96%
(b) 2.87%
(c) 80%
(d) 75%
18. Which naturally occurring ingredient causes enigmatic browning in fruits and vegetables?
(a) Piper dine
(b) Cycasin
(c) Tannins
(d) Citric Acid
19. Why should you be concerned about excessive use of black pepper?
(a) It can cause hallucinations
(b) It can cause a change in genetic material
(c) It contains LD 50
(d) It can become a strong carcinogen
20. Which of the following vitamins must be declared first on a nutritional label
for a food product?
(a) Vitamin C
(b) Vitamin A
(c) Vitamin D
(d) Vitamin E
21. Preservatives can be added to bakery products to prevent or retard mold growth, which of the following is Not one of those preservatives?
(a) Potassium sorbate
(b) Sodium benzoate
(c) Sodium bicarbonate
(d) Sodium proprionate
22. Food containers that are absolutely impermeable to gases and vapours are referred to as __________
(a) laminates
(b) hermetic
(c) aseptic
(d) edible
23........... is a basic substance found in parts of plants. They usually - taste bitter and are often used as active principles in drugs.
(a) Chlorophyll
(b) Catalase
(c) Alkaloid
(d) Teratogens
24. What occurs when a food is eaten that contains parasites.
(a) Toxin-mediated food borne infection
(b) Food borne intoxication
(c) Food borne infection
(d) Food borne infestation
25. which process is a result of absorption by polar molecules?
(a) Microwaves
(b) Irradiation
(c) Fermentation
(d) Boiling
Answers :
1 b
2 d
3 d
4 a
5 a
6 b
7 b
8 c
9 b
10 d
11 d
12 c
13 b
14 d
15 a
16 a
17 c
18 c
19 d
20 b
21 c
22 b
23 b
24 d
25 a
home science exam solved questions Free online mcq
1. What can excess of protein intake lead to?
(a) A feeling of wanting to eat more
(b) Vitamin A deficiency
(c) More calcium being excreted
(d) Constipation
2. Which enzyme does hydrochloric acid activate?
(a) Rennin
(b) Lactase
(c) Trypsin
(d) Pepsin
3. What is mitosis?
(a) The covering around the cell
(b) The protection against UV light
(c) The elimination of toxins from the.
(d) .The multiplication of cells
4. What is neuralgia?
(a) Shooting pains along the course of a nerve
(b) Pain down the back and outside of the thigh
(c) Disease of the basal ganglia
(d) Paralysis or weakness of one side of the face
5. Eversion is
(a) Moving the side of the sole of the foot outwards
(b) Pointing the toes upwards
(c) Pointing the toes downwards
(d) Moving the side of the sole of the foot inwards
6. How long should a cool down in an absolute beginners class be?
(a) 5 minutes
(b) 10 minutes
(c) 15 minutes
(d) 20 minutes
7. What is the cause of stretch marks?
(a) Loss of elasticity in the epidermis
(b) Loss of elasticity in the dermis
(c) Loss of elasticity in the subcutaneous layer
(d) Loss of elasticity in the muscles near the skin’s surface
8. The typical daily s intake is
(a) 1-3 gm
(b) 3-5 gm
(c) 6-9 gm
(d) 11-14 gm
9. If a person. habitually consumes 10 tablets a ay of vitamin-mineral supplements, which nutrient is least likely to cause toxicity?
(a) Vitamin E
(b) Vitamin A
(c) Vitamin D
(d) Iron
10. The number of kilocalories in one gram of fat is
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 7
(d) 9
11. Essential amino acids are
(a) composed entirely of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms
(b) synthesized by the body during metabolism
(c) in all protein foods of low biological value
(d) in all protein foods of high biological value
12. Polysaccharides are
(a) composed of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen atoms
(b) sweet-tasting, and contain one glucose and one fructose molecule
(c) the most complex group of carbohydrates, and include starch and dextrin
(d) difficult to digest, and so contribute little to energy stores
13. Malnutrition occurs when
(a) a child’s diet is lacking in protein
(b) energy intake is below the minimum required to maintain a healthy body
(c) there is an imbalance of the essential nutrients required to maintain a healthy body
(d) energy intake exceeds the body’s energy needs
14. Levels of cholesterol in the blood can be lowered by a diet that contains
(a) polyunsaturated fats
(b) low-density lipoproteins
(c) saturated fats
(d) trans fatty acids
15. In experiment an egg-white is heated in a test-tube, held in a beaker of boiling water. The result is an opaque white solid. The experiment demonstrates
(a) the coagulation of proteins
(b) the catabolism of essential amino acids
(c) acid and alkali reactions in food
(d) gelatinization
16. A person with coeliac disease should avoid eating
(a) rice and stir-fried vegetables
(b) fresh fruit salad and ice-cream
(c) tacos and mince
(d) cheese and whole meal bread sandwiches
17. Milk contains approximately what percent water?
(a) 96%
(b) 2.87%
(c) 80%
(d) 75%
18. Which naturally occurring ingredient causes enigmatic browning in fruits and vegetables?
(a) Piper dine
(b) Cycasin
(c) Tannins
(d) Citric Acid
19. Why should you be concerned about excessive use of black pepper?
(a) It can cause hallucinations
(b) It can cause a change in genetic material
(c) It contains LD 50
(d) It can become a strong carcinogen
20. Which of the following vitamins must be declared first on a nutritional label
for a food product?
(a) Vitamin C
(b) Vitamin A
(c) Vitamin D
(d) Vitamin E
21. Preservatives can be added to bakery products to prevent or retard mold growth, which of the following is Not one of those preservatives?
(a) Potassium sorbate
(b) Sodium benzoate
(c) Sodium bicarbonate
(d) Sodium proprionate
22. Food containers that are absolutely impermeable to gases and vapours are referred to as __________
(a) laminates
(b) hermetic
(c) aseptic
(d) edible
23........... is a basic substance found in parts of plants. They usually - taste bitter and are often used as active principles in drugs.
(a) Chlorophyll
(b) Catalase
(c) Alkaloid
(d) Teratogens
24. What occurs when a food is eaten that contains parasites.
(a) Toxin-mediated food borne infection
(b) Food borne intoxication
(c) Food borne infection
(d) Food borne infestation
25. which process is a result of absorption by polar molecules?
(a) Microwaves
(b) Irradiation
(c) Fermentation
(d) Boiling
Answers :
1 b
2 d
3 d
4 a
5 a
6 b
7 b
8 c
9 b
10 d
11 d
12 c
13 b
14 d
15 a
16 a
17 c
18 c
19 d
20 b
21 c
22 b
23 b
24 d
25 a
Free General Knowledge Practice Test
Free General Knowledge Practice Test
Free Basic Current General Knowledge Online Practice Test
1. Between 1950 and 2007 the population increased by about 2 times. What was the increase in food grains production between those years ? About—
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 4
(E) 5
2. Carpet weaving is a very prominent micro / small industry in
Which of the following areas?
(A) Bhopal (Madhya Pradesh)
(B) Agra (Uttar Pradesh)
(C) Nasik (Maharashtra)
(D) Bhadohi (Uttar Pradesh)
(E) Ahmedabad (Gujarat)
3. Milk cooperatives have been very successful in which of the following states in India?
(A)Odisha
(B) West Bengal
(C)Assam
(D) Kerala
(E)Gujarat
4. India’s total area under cultivation is one of the highest in the world. How much of its total area is under cultivation?
(A)30%
(B) 35%
(C)45%
(D) 40%
(E) More than 50%
5. Many times we read about Doha Round of discussion associated with the meetings of the World Trade Organisation (WTO). What exactly was the main issue in Doha Round of discussion due to which it appeared frequently in press?
1. Subsidy to agro products by rich nations.
2. Limit of Foreign Direct Investment in commercial ventures in developing nations.
3. Migration of skilled and trained labour force from poor to rich nations.
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only2
(C) Only 1
(D) Only 2 and 3
(E) All l, 2 and 3
6. Growing of which of the following crops comparatively needs
lot of water?
1. Jowar
2. Paddy
3. Groundnut
(A)
(B)
Only 1 Only 2
7. India’s top agricultural scientist and one of the architects of India’s Green Revolution Dr. M. S. Swami Nathan has warned that the country could face a food crisis, if agricultural productivity is not increased and farming is neglected. Which of the following is/are some of the measures which will directly or indirectly help in better food security in India?
1. reducing the use of pesticides and chemical fertilize
2. Creating a network of advanced soil testing laboratories.
3. The flow of credit to small and marginal farmers should be made hassle free and speedy.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1,2and3
(E) Only2and3
8. The workers employed under Mahatma Gandhi Rural Employment Guarantee Act are engaged in which of the following developmental projects?
1. Construction of 12 lakhs km. countrywide optic fibre net work line.
2. Construction of Metro ‘net work in Mumbai and Hyderabad.
3. Cleaning of the recent oil spill at the coastal areas of Mumbai / Goa caused by the collision of two oil tankers.
(A) Only 2
Only 1 Only 3
All 1, 2 and 3
(E) Only land2
9. Which of the following organisations has become an example of the great success of micro- financing in the world?
(A) Doha Bank
(B) Grameen Bank
(C) Habib Bank Ltd.
(D) RAK Bank
(E) None of these
10. Which of the following schemes of the Govt. of India is being restructured as National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM)?
(A) Swarnjayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY)
(B) Prime Minister Rozgar Yojana (PMRY)
(C) Grameen Rozgar Yojana (GRY)
(D) Training of Rural Youth for Self Employment (TRYSEM)
11. ‘Pisciculture’ is not a very common activity in—
(A) West Bengal
(B) Kerala ‘(C) Goa
(D) Maharashtra
(E) Rajasthan
12. Production of silk for commercial purposes is known as—
(A) Palmology
(B) Horticulture
(C) Sericulture
(D) Aquaculture
(E) None of these
13. India is not a self-dependent Country in the production of—
(A)Wheat
(B) Rice
(C) Crude Oil
(D) Sugar
(E) Vegetables
14. Which of the following were the main recommendations of the Justice Ranganath Mishra Commission on Minorities?
1. At least 10 per cent jobs should be reserved for Muslims and 5 per cent for other minorities in Central and State Govt. jobs in all cadres and grades.
2. Delink SC status from Religion and abrogation of 1950 scheduled caste order.
3. At least 20 seats should be reserved for minorities in the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only
(D) All 1,2and3
(E) Only l and 2
15. Yellow Revolution in India is associated with the production
of—
(A) Egg
(B) Oil seeds
(C) Fruits
(D) Vegetables
(E) Gold
16. Which of the following is are true about the National Food Security Act Bill, cleared by the group of ministers recently?
1. Bill envisages that 25 kg. of food grain to be given to the poor at a price of Rs. 3 perkg.
2. Only those who are employed under any rural Employment scheme of the Govt. of India, will be eligible to take advantage of the same.
3. It will be mandatory for the beneficiaries to work at least 40 hours in a week under any rural development scheme of the Govt. of India to get benefit of the same.
The food grain given to them will be a part of the wages given to them.
(A) Only 3
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 1
(D) Only I and 2
(E) All 1,2 and 3
17. Who amongst the following is popularly known as the Milkman of India?
(A) Medha Patekar
(B) Sundarlal Bahuguna
(C) Mahendra Singh Tikait
(D) Sudha Murthy
(E) Verghese Kurian
18. Cooperative movement in Sugar production in which of the following states in India has been very successful?
(A) Arunachal Pradesh
(B) Jammu and Kashmir
(C) West Bengal (D) Rajasthan
(E) Maharashtra
19. In a fast developing economy like ours which of the following will show fastest growth?
(A) Manufacturing
(B) Service Sector
(C) Infrastructure
(D) Agriculture
(El Ancillaries
20. In economic theory the social welfare and the economic welfare are described in a way that the two are termed as—
(A) Two independent factors
(B) partially related to each other
(C) Synonymous of each other
(D) one as sub-set of the other
(E) None of these
21. In ‘Balance of Payment’ calculations for the country, the current account balance means—
(A) Export less imports
(B) Imports only
(C) Trade balance plus capital account balance
(D) Cost of domestic production plus production for exports
(E) None of these
22. Which of the .following is not a feature of a fast growing economy?
1. Equal Input-Equal growth
2. Double Digit Inflation
3. Production being used for
Self Consumption
(A)Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
23. In Govt. budget when we com pare revenue and fiscal deficit, we find that Fiscal Deficit is—
(A) Always less
(B) Always more
(C) Sometimes more sometimes less
(D) Occasionally equal
(E) Cannot be predicted
24. How much amount has the Govt. of India allocated to set up a National Security Fund for workers in unorganized sector?
(A) Rs. 500 crore
(B) Rs. 750 crore
(C) Rs. 1,000 crore
(D) Rs. 1,050 crore
(E) None of these
25. The Govt. of India recently decided to use satellite driven Global Positioning System (GPS)
to ensure food security for all. How will this help the authorities?
1. It will reduce pilferage and diversion of food grains to open markets.
2. It will help in monitoring the movement of every bag of wheat and rice received in the godowns or PDS shops.
3. It will help in tracking of vehicles carrying food grains to ensure their safe arrival to designated place,.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Answers:
1 D
2 D
3 E
4 E
5 A
6 B
7 D
8 E
9 B
10 A
11 D
12 C
13 C
14 E
15 B
16 E
17 E
18 E
19 C
20 D
21 C
22 A
23 B
24 C
25 E
Free Basic Current General Knowledge Online Practice Test
1. Between 1950 and 2007 the population increased by about 2 times. What was the increase in food grains production between those years ? About—
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 4
(E) 5
2. Carpet weaving is a very prominent micro / small industry in
Which of the following areas?
(A) Bhopal (Madhya Pradesh)
(B) Agra (Uttar Pradesh)
(C) Nasik (Maharashtra)
(D) Bhadohi (Uttar Pradesh)
(E) Ahmedabad (Gujarat)
3. Milk cooperatives have been very successful in which of the following states in India?
(A)Odisha
(B) West Bengal
(C)Assam
(D) Kerala
(E)Gujarat
4. India’s total area under cultivation is one of the highest in the world. How much of its total area is under cultivation?
(A)30%
(B) 35%
(C)45%
(D) 40%
(E) More than 50%
5. Many times we read about Doha Round of discussion associated with the meetings of the World Trade Organisation (WTO). What exactly was the main issue in Doha Round of discussion due to which it appeared frequently in press?
1. Subsidy to agro products by rich nations.
2. Limit of Foreign Direct Investment in commercial ventures in developing nations.
3. Migration of skilled and trained labour force from poor to rich nations.
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only2
(C) Only 1
(D) Only 2 and 3
(E) All l, 2 and 3
6. Growing of which of the following crops comparatively needs
lot of water?
1. Jowar
2. Paddy
3. Groundnut
(A)
(B)
Only 1 Only 2
7. India’s top agricultural scientist and one of the architects of India’s Green Revolution Dr. M. S. Swami Nathan has warned that the country could face a food crisis, if agricultural productivity is not increased and farming is neglected. Which of the following is/are some of the measures which will directly or indirectly help in better food security in India?
1. reducing the use of pesticides and chemical fertilize
2. Creating a network of advanced soil testing laboratories.
3. The flow of credit to small and marginal farmers should be made hassle free and speedy.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1,2and3
(E) Only2and3
8. The workers employed under Mahatma Gandhi Rural Employment Guarantee Act are engaged in which of the following developmental projects?
1. Construction of 12 lakhs km. countrywide optic fibre net work line.
2. Construction of Metro ‘net work in Mumbai and Hyderabad.
3. Cleaning of the recent oil spill at the coastal areas of Mumbai / Goa caused by the collision of two oil tankers.
(A) Only 2
Only 1 Only 3
All 1, 2 and 3
(E) Only land2
9. Which of the following organisations has become an example of the great success of micro- financing in the world?
(A) Doha Bank
(B) Grameen Bank
(C) Habib Bank Ltd.
(D) RAK Bank
(E) None of these
10. Which of the following schemes of the Govt. of India is being restructured as National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM)?
(A) Swarnjayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY)
(B) Prime Minister Rozgar Yojana (PMRY)
(C) Grameen Rozgar Yojana (GRY)
(D) Training of Rural Youth for Self Employment (TRYSEM)
11. ‘Pisciculture’ is not a very common activity in—
(A) West Bengal
(B) Kerala ‘(C) Goa
(D) Maharashtra
(E) Rajasthan
12. Production of silk for commercial purposes is known as—
(A) Palmology
(B) Horticulture
(C) Sericulture
(D) Aquaculture
(E) None of these
13. India is not a self-dependent Country in the production of—
(A)Wheat
(B) Rice
(C) Crude Oil
(D) Sugar
(E) Vegetables
14. Which of the following were the main recommendations of the Justice Ranganath Mishra Commission on Minorities?
1. At least 10 per cent jobs should be reserved for Muslims and 5 per cent for other minorities in Central and State Govt. jobs in all cadres and grades.
2. Delink SC status from Religion and abrogation of 1950 scheduled caste order.
3. At least 20 seats should be reserved for minorities in the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only
(D) All 1,2and3
(E) Only l and 2
15. Yellow Revolution in India is associated with the production
of—
(A) Egg
(B) Oil seeds
(C) Fruits
(D) Vegetables
(E) Gold
16. Which of the following is are true about the National Food Security Act Bill, cleared by the group of ministers recently?
1. Bill envisages that 25 kg. of food grain to be given to the poor at a price of Rs. 3 perkg.
2. Only those who are employed under any rural Employment scheme of the Govt. of India, will be eligible to take advantage of the same.
3. It will be mandatory for the beneficiaries to work at least 40 hours in a week under any rural development scheme of the Govt. of India to get benefit of the same.
The food grain given to them will be a part of the wages given to them.
(A) Only 3
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 1
(D) Only I and 2
(E) All 1,2 and 3
17. Who amongst the following is popularly known as the Milkman of India?
(A) Medha Patekar
(B) Sundarlal Bahuguna
(C) Mahendra Singh Tikait
(D) Sudha Murthy
(E) Verghese Kurian
18. Cooperative movement in Sugar production in which of the following states in India has been very successful?
(A) Arunachal Pradesh
(B) Jammu and Kashmir
(C) West Bengal (D) Rajasthan
(E) Maharashtra
19. In a fast developing economy like ours which of the following will show fastest growth?
(A) Manufacturing
(B) Service Sector
(C) Infrastructure
(D) Agriculture
(El Ancillaries
20. In economic theory the social welfare and the economic welfare are described in a way that the two are termed as—
(A) Two independent factors
(B) partially related to each other
(C) Synonymous of each other
(D) one as sub-set of the other
(E) None of these
21. In ‘Balance of Payment’ calculations for the country, the current account balance means—
(A) Export less imports
(B) Imports only
(C) Trade balance plus capital account balance
(D) Cost of domestic production plus production for exports
(E) None of these
22. Which of the .following is not a feature of a fast growing economy?
1. Equal Input-Equal growth
2. Double Digit Inflation
3. Production being used for
Self Consumption
(A)Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
23. In Govt. budget when we com pare revenue and fiscal deficit, we find that Fiscal Deficit is—
(A) Always less
(B) Always more
(C) Sometimes more sometimes less
(D) Occasionally equal
(E) Cannot be predicted
24. How much amount has the Govt. of India allocated to set up a National Security Fund for workers in unorganized sector?
(A) Rs. 500 crore
(B) Rs. 750 crore
(C) Rs. 1,000 crore
(D) Rs. 1,050 crore
(E) None of these
25. The Govt. of India recently decided to use satellite driven Global Positioning System (GPS)
to ensure food security for all. How will this help the authorities?
1. It will reduce pilferage and diversion of food grains to open markets.
2. It will help in monitoring the movement of every bag of wheat and rice received in the godowns or PDS shops.
3. It will help in tracking of vehicles carrying food grains to ensure their safe arrival to designated place,.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Answers:
1 D
2 D
3 E
4 E
5 A
6 B
7 D
8 E
9 B
10 A
11 D
12 C
13 C
14 E
15 B
16 E
17 E
18 E
19 C
20 D
21 C
22 A
23 B
24 C
25 E
NDA exam Sample questions Geometry maths
NDA exam Sample questions Geometry maths
NDA Entrance Exam Solved Question Paper
1. The point O lies inside a triangle PQR such that ?OPQ, ?OQR and ?ORP are
equal in area. Then, the point O is called as
(a) incentre
(b) centroid
(c) circumcentre
(d) orthocentre
Ans. (b)
2. In ?ABC, O is the orthocentre and BOC = 2 A, then the magnitude of BOC is
equal to
(a) 120°
(b) 100°
(c) 80°
(d) 60°
Ans. (a)
3. ABC is a triangle whose sides BC and CA ate produced to D and E respectively. If
DCA = 108°, EAB = 124°, then the value of ABC is
(a) 72°
(b) 56°
(d) 1500
Ans. (c)
4. ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral in which AD is the diameter and BCD = 125°, then
the measure of ADB is
(a) 72°
(b) 45°
(c) 55°
(d) 65°
Ans. (a)
5. AD is the bisector of A of ?ABC, AC = 4.2 cm, DC = 6 cm, BC = 10 cm, then AB is
(a) 2.8 cm
(b) 3 cm
(c) 3.5 cm
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
6. If O is the orthocentre of the ?ABC, then
(a) BOC = 2 BAC
(b) BOC and BAC are supplementary
(c) BOC= BAC
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
7. In ?ABC, D, E and F are the mid points of the sides BC, CA and AB respectively.
The area of ?ABC is 24 cm2, then the area of ?DEF is
(a) 7 cm2
(b) 6 cm2
(c) 18 cm2
(d) 16 cm2
Ans. (b)
8. In a parallelogram PQRS, PQ = 4.5 cm, PR =6 cm, QS = 7.8 cm and the diagonals
PR and QS intersect each other at O, then to draw a parallelogram we have to draw
first
(a) ?PQR
(b) ?ROS
(c) ?QOR
(d) ?PRS
Ans. (b)
9. In the trapezium PQRS, PQ is parallel to RS and the diagonals intersect at O. If OP .
SR = m(OR . PQ), then the value of m is
(a) 1/4
(b) 1/3
(c) 1
(d) 1/2
Ans. (c)
10. In a parallelogram PQRS, X is the mid point of PS and Y is the mid point of QR,
then XY divides QS in the ratio of
(a) 1 : 4
(b) 1 : 1
(c) 1 : 2
(d) 1 : 3
Ans. (b)
11. The minimum number of dimensions needed to construct a rectangle is
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Ans. (a)
12. ABC is right angled triangle with BP as the perpendicular to the hypotenuse. The
ratio AB : AC is equal to
(a) 2 : 3
(b) BP : BC
(c) BP2 : BC2
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
13. The triangle ABC has AB = 5 cm, AC = 8 cm and BC = 9 cm, then ?ABC is
(a) obtuse angled
(b) not obtuse angled
(c) right angled
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
14. A rectangle PQRS is inscribed in a quadrant of a circle, with P at the centre and R
on the circumference. If PS is 12 cm and PQ is 5 cm, then the diameter of the circle
is
(a) 26 cm
(b) 29 cm
(c) 28 cm
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
15. In a right angled triangle, if one angle is 30 then the side opposite to it is
(a) one third of the base
(b) half of the hypotenuse
(c) one fourth of the hypotenuse
(d) one sixth of the hypotenuse
Ans. (b)
16. A circle is divided into 12 equal parts. The number of degrees in each arc is
(a) 60°
(b) 30°
(c) 45°
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
17. The figure formed by joining the mid points of the sides of a quadrilateral is a
(a) trapezium
(b) rhombus
(c) parallelogram
(d) rectangle
Ans. (c)
18. If a pair of opposite angles of a quadrilateral are supplementary, the quadrilateral is
a
(a) cyclic
(b) parallelogram
(c) rectangle
(d) rhombus
Ans. (a)
19. A pair of opposite sides of a cyclic quadrilateral are equal. Which one is true?
(a) Its diagonals are equal.
(b) It is a rhombus
(c) It is a parallelogram.
(d) All of these
Ans. (a)
20. The sum of the angles in four segments exterior to a cyclic quadrilateral is equal to
(a) 350°
(b) 450°
(c) 540°
(d) 180°
Ans. (c)
NDA Entrance Exam Solved Question Paper
1. The point O lies inside a triangle PQR such that ?OPQ, ?OQR and ?ORP are
equal in area. Then, the point O is called as
(a) incentre
(b) centroid
(c) circumcentre
(d) orthocentre
Ans. (b)
2. In ?ABC, O is the orthocentre and BOC = 2 A, then the magnitude of BOC is
equal to
(a) 120°
(b) 100°
(c) 80°
(d) 60°
Ans. (a)
3. ABC is a triangle whose sides BC and CA ate produced to D and E respectively. If
DCA = 108°, EAB = 124°, then the value of ABC is
(a) 72°
(b) 56°
(d) 1500
Ans. (c)
4. ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral in which AD is the diameter and BCD = 125°, then
the measure of ADB is
(a) 72°
(b) 45°
(c) 55°
(d) 65°
Ans. (a)
5. AD is the bisector of A of ?ABC, AC = 4.2 cm, DC = 6 cm, BC = 10 cm, then AB is
(a) 2.8 cm
(b) 3 cm
(c) 3.5 cm
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
6. If O is the orthocentre of the ?ABC, then
(a) BOC = 2 BAC
(b) BOC and BAC are supplementary
(c) BOC= BAC
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
7. In ?ABC, D, E and F are the mid points of the sides BC, CA and AB respectively.
The area of ?ABC is 24 cm2, then the area of ?DEF is
(a) 7 cm2
(b) 6 cm2
(c) 18 cm2
(d) 16 cm2
Ans. (b)
8. In a parallelogram PQRS, PQ = 4.5 cm, PR =6 cm, QS = 7.8 cm and the diagonals
PR and QS intersect each other at O, then to draw a parallelogram we have to draw
first
(a) ?PQR
(b) ?ROS
(c) ?QOR
(d) ?PRS
Ans. (b)
9. In the trapezium PQRS, PQ is parallel to RS and the diagonals intersect at O. If OP .
SR = m(OR . PQ), then the value of m is
(a) 1/4
(b) 1/3
(c) 1
(d) 1/2
Ans. (c)
10. In a parallelogram PQRS, X is the mid point of PS and Y is the mid point of QR,
then XY divides QS in the ratio of
(a) 1 : 4
(b) 1 : 1
(c) 1 : 2
(d) 1 : 3
Ans. (b)
11. The minimum number of dimensions needed to construct a rectangle is
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Ans. (a)
12. ABC is right angled triangle with BP as the perpendicular to the hypotenuse. The
ratio AB : AC is equal to
(a) 2 : 3
(b) BP : BC
(c) BP2 : BC2
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
13. The triangle ABC has AB = 5 cm, AC = 8 cm and BC = 9 cm, then ?ABC is
(a) obtuse angled
(b) not obtuse angled
(c) right angled
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
14. A rectangle PQRS is inscribed in a quadrant of a circle, with P at the centre and R
on the circumference. If PS is 12 cm and PQ is 5 cm, then the diameter of the circle
is
(a) 26 cm
(b) 29 cm
(c) 28 cm
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
15. In a right angled triangle, if one angle is 30 then the side opposite to it is
(a) one third of the base
(b) half of the hypotenuse
(c) one fourth of the hypotenuse
(d) one sixth of the hypotenuse
Ans. (b)
16. A circle is divided into 12 equal parts. The number of degrees in each arc is
(a) 60°
(b) 30°
(c) 45°
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
17. The figure formed by joining the mid points of the sides of a quadrilateral is a
(a) trapezium
(b) rhombus
(c) parallelogram
(d) rectangle
Ans. (c)
18. If a pair of opposite angles of a quadrilateral are supplementary, the quadrilateral is
a
(a) cyclic
(b) parallelogram
(c) rectangle
(d) rhombus
Ans. (a)
19. A pair of opposite sides of a cyclic quadrilateral are equal. Which one is true?
(a) Its diagonals are equal.
(b) It is a rhombus
(c) It is a parallelogram.
(d) All of these
Ans. (a)
20. The sum of the angles in four segments exterior to a cyclic quadrilateral is equal to
(a) 350°
(b) 450°
(c) 540°
(d) 180°
Ans. (c)
quiz questions on Indian constitution
quiz questions on Indian constitution
MCQ on Constitution Of India objective Multiple choice questions
1. The word ex-officio means included or allowed because of holding the office of the Vice President of India
(a) he/she would automatically become the Chairperson
(b) he/she would be elected by the people directly
(c) he/she would be nominated by the President of India
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
2. Which of the following statement is not correct?
(a) If the majority of the house votes against minister continues in power
(b) If the majority of the house votes for the motion the council of ministers has to resign
(c) If the President votes against the motion of the council of ministers 1s to resign
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
3. Which of the following is not correct?
(a) Starred questions are for oral answers.
(b) Non-starred questions and written answers
(c) Both are for oral and written answers
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
4. The President enjoys the following powers
(a) Financial powers
(b) Emergency powers
(c) Judicial powers
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)
5. Which of the following is not a judicial function of the Parliament?
(a) It can impeach and remove the President out of his office
(b) It takes part in the election of the President
(c) It can impeach the judges of the Supreme Court
(d) It can impeach the judges of the High Court of India
Ans. (b)
6. Which of the following is not the function of the cabinet?
(a) All national policies of the government are formulated
(b) All major appointments made by the President are decided by this body
(c) It decides the country’s foreign policy
(d) It rules but does not reign
Ans. (d)
7. The Council of Ministers at the centre is responsible to
(a) The President
(b) The Prime Minister
(c) The Rajya Sabha
(d) The Lok Sabha
Ans. (d)
8. In the third stage of the bill
(a) The name and purpose of the bill is given
(b) The bill is read and discussed clause by clause
(c) The bill is put to vote
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
9. The Parliament follows certain types of motions such as
(a) The no-confidence motion
(b) Calling attention notice
(c) Adjournment motion
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)
10. The head of the council of Ministers and the actual head of the central government is the
(a) President
(b) Cabinet Ministers
(c)Prime Minister
(d) Vice President
Ans. (c)
11. The judicial functions of the Indian Parliament are -
(a) It can remove the President out of office
(b) It can impeach the President
(c) It can impeach the judges of the Supreme Court and the High Court of India
(d) all of the above
Ans. (d)
12. The Parliament can pass a bill on subjects mentioned in the state list if members of
(a) The Rajya Sabha adopts a resolution to that effect by two-third majority
(b) The Lok Sabha adopts a resolution to that effect by two third majority
(c) The Lok Sabha adopts a resolution by simple majority
(d) The Rajya Sabha adopts a resolution to that effect by absolute majority.
Ans. (a)
13. Which statement is correct?
(a) The Indian Parliament controls the Executive
(b) The Speaker controls the Prime Minister
(c) The Vice President controls the Speaker
(d) All of the above are correct
Ans. (a)
14. Which of the following are not the functions of legislature?
(a) To enact laws
(b) To conduct election
(c) To control finance
(d) To consider matters of publish importance
Ans. (b)
15. Which of the following do not have bicameral legislature?
(a) England
(b) India
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
16. Which body can sit as the court of impeachment for the trial of the President?
(a) The Supreme Court
(b) The Election Commission
(c) The Parliament
(d) The Prime Minister
Ans. (c)
17. Who is the first citizen of the country?
(a) The wife of the President
(b) The father of the President
(c) The President himself
(d) The Prime Minister
Ans. (c)
18. President rule is imposed in a state under
(a) Article 353
(b) Article 356
(c) Article 351
(d) Article 359
Ans. (d)
19. Who had the shortest term of Vice Presidentship in India?
(a) Dr. Zakir Hussain
(b) Shri V.V. Giri
(c) Shri Krishan Kant
(d) Shri K.R. Narayanan
Ans. (b)
20. Who had the shortest term of Presidentship in India?
(a) Dr. F.A. Ahmed
(b) Dr. S. Radha Krishnan
(c) Dr. Zakir Hussain
(d) Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma
Ans. (c)
MCQ on Constitution Of India objective Multiple choice questions
1. The word ex-officio means included or allowed because of holding the office of the Vice President of India
(a) he/she would automatically become the Chairperson
(b) he/she would be elected by the people directly
(c) he/she would be nominated by the President of India
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
2. Which of the following statement is not correct?
(a) If the majority of the house votes against minister continues in power
(b) If the majority of the house votes for the motion the council of ministers has to resign
(c) If the President votes against the motion of the council of ministers 1s to resign
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
3. Which of the following is not correct?
(a) Starred questions are for oral answers.
(b) Non-starred questions and written answers
(c) Both are for oral and written answers
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
4. The President enjoys the following powers
(a) Financial powers
(b) Emergency powers
(c) Judicial powers
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)
5. Which of the following is not a judicial function of the Parliament?
(a) It can impeach and remove the President out of his office
(b) It takes part in the election of the President
(c) It can impeach the judges of the Supreme Court
(d) It can impeach the judges of the High Court of India
Ans. (b)
6. Which of the following is not the function of the cabinet?
(a) All national policies of the government are formulated
(b) All major appointments made by the President are decided by this body
(c) It decides the country’s foreign policy
(d) It rules but does not reign
Ans. (d)
7. The Council of Ministers at the centre is responsible to
(a) The President
(b) The Prime Minister
(c) The Rajya Sabha
(d) The Lok Sabha
Ans. (d)
8. In the third stage of the bill
(a) The name and purpose of the bill is given
(b) The bill is read and discussed clause by clause
(c) The bill is put to vote
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
9. The Parliament follows certain types of motions such as
(a) The no-confidence motion
(b) Calling attention notice
(c) Adjournment motion
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)
10. The head of the council of Ministers and the actual head of the central government is the
(a) President
(b) Cabinet Ministers
(c)Prime Minister
(d) Vice President
Ans. (c)
11. The judicial functions of the Indian Parliament are -
(a) It can remove the President out of office
(b) It can impeach the President
(c) It can impeach the judges of the Supreme Court and the High Court of India
(d) all of the above
Ans. (d)
12. The Parliament can pass a bill on subjects mentioned in the state list if members of
(a) The Rajya Sabha adopts a resolution to that effect by two-third majority
(b) The Lok Sabha adopts a resolution to that effect by two third majority
(c) The Lok Sabha adopts a resolution by simple majority
(d) The Rajya Sabha adopts a resolution to that effect by absolute majority.
Ans. (a)
13. Which statement is correct?
(a) The Indian Parliament controls the Executive
(b) The Speaker controls the Prime Minister
(c) The Vice President controls the Speaker
(d) All of the above are correct
Ans. (a)
14. Which of the following are not the functions of legislature?
(a) To enact laws
(b) To conduct election
(c) To control finance
(d) To consider matters of publish importance
Ans. (b)
15. Which of the following do not have bicameral legislature?
(a) England
(b) India
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
16. Which body can sit as the court of impeachment for the trial of the President?
(a) The Supreme Court
(b) The Election Commission
(c) The Parliament
(d) The Prime Minister
Ans. (c)
17. Who is the first citizen of the country?
(a) The wife of the President
(b) The father of the President
(c) The President himself
(d) The Prime Minister
Ans. (c)
18. President rule is imposed in a state under
(a) Article 353
(b) Article 356
(c) Article 351
(d) Article 359
Ans. (d)
19. Who had the shortest term of Vice Presidentship in India?
(a) Dr. Zakir Hussain
(b) Shri V.V. Giri
(c) Shri Krishan Kant
(d) Shri K.R. Narayanan
Ans. (b)
20. Who had the shortest term of Presidentship in India?
(a) Dr. F.A. Ahmed
(b) Dr. S. Radha Krishnan
(c) Dr. Zakir Hussain
(d) Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma
Ans. (c)
Organic Chemistry Practice Multiple Choice Questions
Organic Chemistry Practice Multiple Choice Questions
Problems and Objective Questions. Organic Chemistry
1. Destructive distillation of coal leads to the formation of
(a) Wood
(b) Kerosene
(c) Ammoniacal liquor
(d) Charcoal
Ans. (a)
2. In the hydrocarbon HC C—H, the covalence of carbon is
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) three
(d) four
Ans. (d)
3. Which of the following are isomers?
(a) Ethane and propane
(b) Ethane and ethene
(c) Ethene and ethyne
(d) Butane and isobutene
Ans. (d)
4. An unsaturated hydrocarbon
(a) Contains six carbon atoms
(b) contains fewer hydrogen atoms than is needed for carbon to have its usual valency of four
(c) Contains excess hydrogen
(d) Contains a chain of carbon atom
Ans. (b)
5. Which of these is not a fossil fuel?
(a) Coal
(b) LPG
(c) Bio gas
(d) Natural gas
Ans. (b)
6. A Gaseous fuel which does not contain carbon monoxide is
(a) Coal gas
(b) Natural gas
(c) Water gas
(d) Producer gas
Ans. (b)
7. Coal with largest C content is
(a) Anthracite
(b) Peat
(c) Lignite
(d) Bituminous
Ans. (a)
8. Which gas is produced when steam is passed over red hot coke?
(a) Produces gas
(b) CNG
(c) Water gas
(d) LPG
Ans. (c)
9. Which of the following is not true about Biogas?
(a) It contains Methane
(b) Bums without smoke
(c) Leaves ash behind
(d) Produced by anaerobic decomposition of animal and plant waste
Ans. (b)
10. Coal gas is mixture of
(a) CH4+H2+CO2+H2S
(b) CH4+H2+CO+H2S
(c) CH4 + H2 + CO
(d) Ethane, propane, butane
Ans. (c)
11. An allotropic form of carbon used for cutting and drilling is
(a) Charcoal
(b) Bone Charcoal
(c) Graphite
(d) Diamond
Ans. (d)
12. The variety of coal having highest carbon content is
(a) Peat
(b) Anthracite
(c) Bituminous
(d) Lignite
Ans. (b)
13. Chemistry of carbon compounds is known is
(a) Organic chemistry
(b) Inorganic chemistry
(c) Physical chemistry
(d) Biochemistry
Ans. (a)
14. Compounds of carbon and hydrogen are called
(a) hydrocarbon
(b) Petrol
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) Carbohydrates
Ans. (a)
15. Which substance is also known as Marsh gas?
(a) Methane
(b) Solid Carbon dioxide
(c) Carbon monoxide
(d) Ammonia
Ans. (a)
16. Methane reacts with chlorine in the presence of sunlight. If this reaction is allowed to continue, the end product formed will be
(a) Carbon tetrachloride
(b) Chloroform
(c) Ethylene Chloride
(d) Chalcogens
Ans. (a)
17. Crystalline form of carbon having 60 carbon atoms joined together
(a) polymer
(b) Buckminster Fullerene
(c) Coal
(d) Diamond
Ans. (b)
18. The molecular formula of butane is
(a) C4H10
(b) C5H12
(c) C4H8
(d) C4H6
Ans. (a)
19. The molecular formula of a methyl group is
(a) CH4
(b) CH3
(c) CH
(d) CH2
Ans. (b)
20. A process in which a change is brought by ferment such as yeast, enzymes which convert sugar into ethyl alcohol is called
(a) Polymerization
(b) Acetylation
(c) Hydrogenation
(d) Fermentation
Ans. (d)
21. Breaking of higher hydrocarbon into lower one by heat is called
(a) Neutralization
(b) Polymerization
(c) Cracking
(d) Acetylating
Ans. (c)
22. The carbon atoms in diamond are bonded to each other by
(a) Ionic bond
(b) Coordinate bond
(c) Hydrogen bonds
(d) Covalent bonds
Ans. (d)
23. Which of the following compounds with behave as an unsaturated hydrocarbon?
(a) Butane
(b) Ethane
(c) Ethyl alcohol
(d) Ethene
Ans. (d)
24. What type of reaction occurs between ethene and hydrogen?
(a) Addition
(b) Dehydration
(c) Substitution
(d) Oxidation
Ans. (a)
25. Acetylene polymerizes to give
(a) Benzene
(b) Polyacetylene
(c) Butane
(d) octane
Ans. (a)
Problems and Objective Questions. Organic Chemistry
1. Destructive distillation of coal leads to the formation of
(a) Wood
(b) Kerosene
(c) Ammoniacal liquor
(d) Charcoal
Ans. (a)
2. In the hydrocarbon HC C—H, the covalence of carbon is
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) three
(d) four
Ans. (d)
3. Which of the following are isomers?
(a) Ethane and propane
(b) Ethane and ethene
(c) Ethene and ethyne
(d) Butane and isobutene
Ans. (d)
4. An unsaturated hydrocarbon
(a) Contains six carbon atoms
(b) contains fewer hydrogen atoms than is needed for carbon to have its usual valency of four
(c) Contains excess hydrogen
(d) Contains a chain of carbon atom
Ans. (b)
5. Which of these is not a fossil fuel?
(a) Coal
(b) LPG
(c) Bio gas
(d) Natural gas
Ans. (b)
6. A Gaseous fuel which does not contain carbon monoxide is
(a) Coal gas
(b) Natural gas
(c) Water gas
(d) Producer gas
Ans. (b)
7. Coal with largest C content is
(a) Anthracite
(b) Peat
(c) Lignite
(d) Bituminous
Ans. (a)
8. Which gas is produced when steam is passed over red hot coke?
(a) Produces gas
(b) CNG
(c) Water gas
(d) LPG
Ans. (c)
9. Which of the following is not true about Biogas?
(a) It contains Methane
(b) Bums without smoke
(c) Leaves ash behind
(d) Produced by anaerobic decomposition of animal and plant waste
Ans. (b)
10. Coal gas is mixture of
(a) CH4+H2+CO2+H2S
(b) CH4+H2+CO+H2S
(c) CH4 + H2 + CO
(d) Ethane, propane, butane
Ans. (c)
11. An allotropic form of carbon used for cutting and drilling is
(a) Charcoal
(b) Bone Charcoal
(c) Graphite
(d) Diamond
Ans. (d)
12. The variety of coal having highest carbon content is
(a) Peat
(b) Anthracite
(c) Bituminous
(d) Lignite
Ans. (b)
13. Chemistry of carbon compounds is known is
(a) Organic chemistry
(b) Inorganic chemistry
(c) Physical chemistry
(d) Biochemistry
Ans. (a)
14. Compounds of carbon and hydrogen are called
(a) hydrocarbon
(b) Petrol
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) Carbohydrates
Ans. (a)
15. Which substance is also known as Marsh gas?
(a) Methane
(b) Solid Carbon dioxide
(c) Carbon monoxide
(d) Ammonia
Ans. (a)
16. Methane reacts with chlorine in the presence of sunlight. If this reaction is allowed to continue, the end product formed will be
(a) Carbon tetrachloride
(b) Chloroform
(c) Ethylene Chloride
(d) Chalcogens
Ans. (a)
17. Crystalline form of carbon having 60 carbon atoms joined together
(a) polymer
(b) Buckminster Fullerene
(c) Coal
(d) Diamond
Ans. (b)
18. The molecular formula of butane is
(a) C4H10
(b) C5H12
(c) C4H8
(d) C4H6
Ans. (a)
19. The molecular formula of a methyl group is
(a) CH4
(b) CH3
(c) CH
(d) CH2
Ans. (b)
20. A process in which a change is brought by ferment such as yeast, enzymes which convert sugar into ethyl alcohol is called
(a) Polymerization
(b) Acetylation
(c) Hydrogenation
(d) Fermentation
Ans. (d)
21. Breaking of higher hydrocarbon into lower one by heat is called
(a) Neutralization
(b) Polymerization
(c) Cracking
(d) Acetylating
Ans. (c)
22. The carbon atoms in diamond are bonded to each other by
(a) Ionic bond
(b) Coordinate bond
(c) Hydrogen bonds
(d) Covalent bonds
Ans. (d)
23. Which of the following compounds with behave as an unsaturated hydrocarbon?
(a) Butane
(b) Ethane
(c) Ethyl alcohol
(d) Ethene
Ans. (d)
24. What type of reaction occurs between ethene and hydrogen?
(a) Addition
(b) Dehydration
(c) Substitution
(d) Oxidation
Ans. (a)
25. Acetylene polymerizes to give
(a) Benzene
(b) Polyacetylene
(c) Butane
(d) octane
Ans. (a)
Friday, September 2, 2011
B.Ed Entrance Sample Paper GK
B.Ed Entrance Sample Paper GK
B Ed Entrance GK Question Paper Sample Model Paper
1. Which of the following is wrong statement?
(a) A rainbow can be seen only when the
Sun is at your front
(b) Sometimes two rainbows can be seen
Simultaneously
(c) The same rainbow can be observed by
Two persons if both have normal vision
(d) Rainbow is formed due to refraction of
Light in rain drops
Answer. (a)
2. The radiant energy of the sun results from:
(a) Cosmic radiation
(b) Nuclear fusion
(c) Nuclear fission
(d) Combustion
Answer. (b)
3. Metallurgy is the process of:
(a) Roasting from the ore
(b) Extracting metal from the ore
(c) Concentrating the ore
(d) Refining the ore
Answer. (b)
4. Antibiotics are:
(a) Anesthetic substances
(b) Sleeping pills
(c) Medicines against contamination of
Wounds
(d) Drugs prepared from moulds and
Mould like organisms
(e) Special medicines used during surgical
Operation
Answer. (c)
5. The green colour of leaves is due to the
Presence of:
(a) Iron
(b) Chlorophyll
(c) Etiolin
(d) The property of reflecting green colour
Of the sun and absorbing the rest
Answer. (b)
6. The chemical digestion of food takes place
In the following combination of organs in
The alimentary tract:
(a) Mouth and small intestine
(b) Stomach and small intestine
(c) Stomach and large intestine
Answer. (b)
7. Acupuncture is widely practised in:
(a) China
(b) America
(c) England
(d) Mangolia
Answer. (a)
8. Milk is pasteurized in order to:
(a) Destroy micro-organisms
(b) Detect adulteration
(c) Increase the protein content
(d) Increase the fat content
Answer. (a)
9. The main function of white blood
Corpuscles in the body is :
(a) To help in the formation of clot
(b) To carry food
(c) To carry oxygen
(d) To protect the body against disease
Answer. (d)
10. Red blood corpuscles are formed in the:
(a) Liver
(b) Kidneys
(c) Bone marrow
(d) Small Intestine
Answer. (c)
11. The real executive power under the
Constitution of India rests with:
(a) The President
(b) The Prime Minister
(c) The Parliament
(d) The Prime Minister and his Council of
Ministers
Answer. (d)
12. Which of the following Indian State has
Common borders with maximum number
Of other Indian States only?
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Bihar
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Answer. (d)
13. Hereditary characters are carried from one
Generation to another through:
(a) Cytoplasm
(b) Nucleoplasm
(c) Protoplasm
(d) Chromosomes
Answer. (d)
14. Which countries are the members of the
ASEAN (Association of South East Asian Nations)?
(a) Pakistan, Malaysia, Indonesia, Burma, Thailand
(b) North Korea, Burma, Bangladesh, Nepal
(c) Thailand, Indonesia, Malaysia, Singapore, Philippines, Vietnam and Brunei
(d) Sri Lanka, India, Burma, Singapore
(e) Laos, Cambodia, Philippines, Burma
Answer. (c)
15. How much total outlay had been proposed for the Eighth Five Year Plan?
(a) Rs. 7,98,000 crore
(b) Rs. 7,92,000 crore
(c) Rs. 4,311,100 crore
(d) Rs. 3,61.000 crore
Answer. (a)
16. According to the census of 1991 the only
State in India that shows excess of females
Over males is:
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Kerala
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Jammu and Kashmir
Answer. (b)
17. Which island is associated with the birth of Napoleon?
(a) Malta
(b) Cicely
(c) Corsica
(d) St. Helena
Answer. (c)
18. INS Udaigiri is the name of:
(a) Indian warship
(b) A famous temple in the Himalayas
(c) The highest hill top in Simla
(d) A mountain peak in the Himalayas
Answer. (a)
19. The central Government drives maximum
Revenue from:
(a) Income Tax
(b) Sale Tax
(c) Excise Duty
(d) Custom Duties
Answer. (d)
20. The Finance Commission is normally
Expected to be constituted after every:
(a) Year
(b) Two years
(c) Three years
(d) Five years
Answer. (d)
21. Who was awarded the 1998 Nobel Prize for
Peace?
(a) Nelson Mandela and F. W. De Klark
(b) Dr. Amartya Sen
(c) Joseph Rotblat
(d) Mr. David Trimble and Mr. John
Hume
Answer. (d)
22. ‘Kuchipudi’ is a dance style which
Originated in:
(a) Orissa
(b) Kerala
(c) North India
(d) Andhra Pradesh
Answer. (d)
23. Kuro Siwo is:
(a) Japanese mountain peak
(b) The high yielding rubber tree of
Malaysia
(c) A live volcano in Italy
(d) A hot water current of Pacific Ocean
Answer. (d)
24. Who was awarded 1998 Jann Pith Award?
(a) Amrita Pam
(b) Jai Prakash Narayan (Posthumously)
(c) Girish Karnad
(d) Dr. U.R. Ananthmurti
Answer. (c)
25. In the Film which picturized the life of Gandhi,
the role of Gandhi and Kasturba Were played by:
(a) Saied Jafri & Banisa Redford
(b) Ben Kingslay & Rohini Hattangaddi
(c) Mickle Ken & Chen Ferenda
(d) Roshah Seth & Smita Patil
Answer. (b)
B Ed Entrance GK Question Paper Sample Model Paper
1. Which of the following is wrong statement?
(a) A rainbow can be seen only when the
Sun is at your front
(b) Sometimes two rainbows can be seen
Simultaneously
(c) The same rainbow can be observed by
Two persons if both have normal vision
(d) Rainbow is formed due to refraction of
Light in rain drops
Answer. (a)
2. The radiant energy of the sun results from:
(a) Cosmic radiation
(b) Nuclear fusion
(c) Nuclear fission
(d) Combustion
Answer. (b)
3. Metallurgy is the process of:
(a) Roasting from the ore
(b) Extracting metal from the ore
(c) Concentrating the ore
(d) Refining the ore
Answer. (b)
4. Antibiotics are:
(a) Anesthetic substances
(b) Sleeping pills
(c) Medicines against contamination of
Wounds
(d) Drugs prepared from moulds and
Mould like organisms
(e) Special medicines used during surgical
Operation
Answer. (c)
5. The green colour of leaves is due to the
Presence of:
(a) Iron
(b) Chlorophyll
(c) Etiolin
(d) The property of reflecting green colour
Of the sun and absorbing the rest
Answer. (b)
6. The chemical digestion of food takes place
In the following combination of organs in
The alimentary tract:
(a) Mouth and small intestine
(b) Stomach and small intestine
(c) Stomach and large intestine
Answer. (b)
7. Acupuncture is widely practised in:
(a) China
(b) America
(c) England
(d) Mangolia
Answer. (a)
8. Milk is pasteurized in order to:
(a) Destroy micro-organisms
(b) Detect adulteration
(c) Increase the protein content
(d) Increase the fat content
Answer. (a)
9. The main function of white blood
Corpuscles in the body is :
(a) To help in the formation of clot
(b) To carry food
(c) To carry oxygen
(d) To protect the body against disease
Answer. (d)
10. Red blood corpuscles are formed in the:
(a) Liver
(b) Kidneys
(c) Bone marrow
(d) Small Intestine
Answer. (c)
11. The real executive power under the
Constitution of India rests with:
(a) The President
(b) The Prime Minister
(c) The Parliament
(d) The Prime Minister and his Council of
Ministers
Answer. (d)
12. Which of the following Indian State has
Common borders with maximum number
Of other Indian States only?
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Bihar
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Answer. (d)
13. Hereditary characters are carried from one
Generation to another through:
(a) Cytoplasm
(b) Nucleoplasm
(c) Protoplasm
(d) Chromosomes
Answer. (d)
14. Which countries are the members of the
ASEAN (Association of South East Asian Nations)?
(a) Pakistan, Malaysia, Indonesia, Burma, Thailand
(b) North Korea, Burma, Bangladesh, Nepal
(c) Thailand, Indonesia, Malaysia, Singapore, Philippines, Vietnam and Brunei
(d) Sri Lanka, India, Burma, Singapore
(e) Laos, Cambodia, Philippines, Burma
Answer. (c)
15. How much total outlay had been proposed for the Eighth Five Year Plan?
(a) Rs. 7,98,000 crore
(b) Rs. 7,92,000 crore
(c) Rs. 4,311,100 crore
(d) Rs. 3,61.000 crore
Answer. (a)
16. According to the census of 1991 the only
State in India that shows excess of females
Over males is:
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Kerala
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Jammu and Kashmir
Answer. (b)
17. Which island is associated with the birth of Napoleon?
(a) Malta
(b) Cicely
(c) Corsica
(d) St. Helena
Answer. (c)
18. INS Udaigiri is the name of:
(a) Indian warship
(b) A famous temple in the Himalayas
(c) The highest hill top in Simla
(d) A mountain peak in the Himalayas
Answer. (a)
19. The central Government drives maximum
Revenue from:
(a) Income Tax
(b) Sale Tax
(c) Excise Duty
(d) Custom Duties
Answer. (d)
20. The Finance Commission is normally
Expected to be constituted after every:
(a) Year
(b) Two years
(c) Three years
(d) Five years
Answer. (d)
21. Who was awarded the 1998 Nobel Prize for
Peace?
(a) Nelson Mandela and F. W. De Klark
(b) Dr. Amartya Sen
(c) Joseph Rotblat
(d) Mr. David Trimble and Mr. John
Hume
Answer. (d)
22. ‘Kuchipudi’ is a dance style which
Originated in:
(a) Orissa
(b) Kerala
(c) North India
(d) Andhra Pradesh
Answer. (d)
23. Kuro Siwo is:
(a) Japanese mountain peak
(b) The high yielding rubber tree of
Malaysia
(c) A live volcano in Italy
(d) A hot water current of Pacific Ocean
Answer. (d)
24. Who was awarded 1998 Jann Pith Award?
(a) Amrita Pam
(b) Jai Prakash Narayan (Posthumously)
(c) Girish Karnad
(d) Dr. U.R. Ananthmurti
Answer. (c)
25. In the Film which picturized the life of Gandhi,
the role of Gandhi and Kasturba Were played by:
(a) Saied Jafri & Banisa Redford
(b) Ben Kingslay & Rohini Hattangaddi
(c) Mickle Ken & Chen Ferenda
(d) Roshah Seth & Smita Patil
Answer. (b)
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