Model test paper English For Banks PO Jobs

Model test paper English For Banks PO Jobs
This Question bank/ test paper is based on previous Exams and Consists of

Comprehension test

Test of grammar

ordering of Sentences

Synonyms

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it in the context of the passage. Certain words/phrases in the passage are printed In bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

The strength of Indian democracy lies in its tradition, in the fusion of the ideas of democracy and national independence which was characteristic of the Indian nationalist movement long before independence Although the British retained supreme authority in India until 1947, the provincial elections of 1937 provided real exercise in democratic practice before national independence; during the Pacific war India was not overrun or seriously invaded by the Japanese and after the war was over, the transfer of power to a government of the Indian Congress Party was a peaceful one as far as Britain was concerned. By 1947 ‘Indianization’ had already gone far in the Indian civil service and army, so that the new government could start with effective instruments of central control.

After independence, however, India was faced with two vast problems; the first, that of economic growth from a very low level of production and the second, that of ethnic diversity and the aspirations of sub nationalities. The Congress leadership was more aware of the former problem than of the second; as a new political elite which had rebelled not only against the British Raj but also against India’s old social order, they were conscious of the need to initiate economic development and undertake social reforms, but as nationalists who had led a struggle  against alien rule on behalf of all parts of India, they took the cohesion of the Indian nation too much for granted and underestimated the centrifugal, forces of ethnic division, which were bound to be accentuated rather than diminished as the popular masses were more and more drawn into politics.

The Congress Party was originally opposed to the idea of recognizing any divisions of India on a linguistic basis and preferred to retain the old provinces of British India which often cut across linguistic boundaries; it was only in response to strong pressures from below that the principle of linguistic states was conceded as the basis for a federal ‘Indian Union’. The rights granted to the states created new problems for the central government. The idea of making Hindi the national language of a united India was thwarted by the recalcitrance of the speakers of other important Indian  languages, and the autonomy of the states rendered central economic planning extremely difficult. Land reforms remained under the control of the states and many large-scale economic projects required a degree of co-operation between the central government and one or more of the states which it was found impossible to achieve.

Co-ordination of policies was difficult even when the Congress Party was in power both in the states and at the centre; when a congress Government in Delhi was confronted with non-Congress parties in office in the states, it became much harder.

1. The provincial elections of 1937 in India showed that the

(a) British rule was not popular in India.

(b) Supremacy of British in India was likely to be short-lived.

(c) Indians were peace-loving people.

(d) India was capable of bringing into practice the idea of democracy.

(e) Indian Congress was the single largest party in India.

2. Why was India not overrun by the Japanese during the Pacific War?

(a) Japan was skeptical about its success in the war.

(b) Japan had friendly relations . with Britain

(c) Japan was interested in India freedom from the British rule.

(d) It was not an advantageous proposition for Japan from the military perspective.

(e) None of these

3. Which according to the passage, can be cited as exercise in democratic practice in India before Independence?

(a) The Indianisation of the Indian civil service

(b) The handing over, of power by British to India

(c) Several democratic Institutions created by the Indian National Congress

(d) A neutral role played by the army

(e) None of these

4. Which of the following problems India was faced with After Independence?

(a) Improper co-ordination of various government policies

(b) Increasing the production from a very low level

(c) Military attack from a country across the border

(d) Lack of co-ordination between the central and state governments

(e) None of these

5.Why was central economic planning found to be difficult?

(a) Ethnic diversity of the people

(b) Lack of will in implementing land reforms

(c) Autonomy given to the states in certain matters

(d) Lack of co-ordination in different government departments

(e) Multiplicity of states and union territories

6.. The new government could start with effective instrument of central power after independence because the

(a) Indian army was organized on the pattern of British army

(b) transfer of power to the Indian Congress party was peaceful

(c) process of Indianization of the Indian CivIl Service had already started

(d) people of India offered their whole hearted support to the government

(e) None of these

7. Which of the following issues was not appropriately realised by the central government

(a) Centre-State relations

(b) A national language for the country

(c) Ethnic diversity of the people

(d) Implementation of the formulated policies

(e) None of these

8. Why was the linguistic reorganisation of the states accepted?

(a) No common national language could be emerged

(b) The states were not co-operating with the central government

(c) Strong pressure from the states were exerted on the central government to create such states

(d) Non-Congress governments in the states demanded such a reorganisation of the states

(e) None of these

9. WhIch of the following statements is true in the context of the. passage?

(a) During the Pacific war India was Invaded by Japan

(b) After Independence India was faced with the problem of linguistic diversity of the people.

(c) Social reforms were neglected by the government.

(d) Congress leadership was not as much aware of the problem of ethnic diversity as much as of low production.

(e) Land reforms were under the control of the Central Government.

10. Which of the following statements is not true in the context of the passage?

(a) The political elite in India rebelled against the British Raj,

(b) By 1947, Indian army was fairly indianized.

(c) Economic development and social reforms were initiated soon after independence.

(d) The Congress party was originally opposed to the idea of division of states on lingustic basis.

(e) The Congress leadership was fully aware of the problem of ethnic diversity in India at the time of Independence.

11.Which word is most nearly the same in meaning as the word ‘accentuated’ as  used in the passage?

(a) exhibited

(b) projected

(c) sharpened

(d) devalued

(e) mitigated

12.       Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word ‘conceded’ as used in the passage?

(a) accorded

(b) criticised

(c) rejected

(d) denounced

(e) withdrawn

13.Which word is most nearly the same in meaning as the word ‘thwarted’ as used in the passage?

(a) diverted

(b) opposed

(c) accepted

(d) advocated

(e) implemented

14. Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word ‘recalcitrance’ as used in the passage?.

(a) provocation.

(b) opposition

(c)  dedication

(d) amenability

(e) vulnerability

15. Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word ‘harder’ as used in the passage.

(a) shorter

(b) slower

(c) easier

(d) larger

(e) inferior

Directions (Questions 18 to 25) Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

16. As a general rule, politicians do not …………..centre stage.

(a) foster

(b) forbid

(c) forgive

(d) forward

(e) forsake

17. We cannot go on strike every year. Now that we have gone on strike we must ……….this issue.

(a) canvass

(b) cross

(c) clinch

(d) culminate

(e) co-ordinate

18. Indications are that the Government is ……….to the prospect of granting bonus to the striking employees.

(a) relieved

(b.) aligned

(c) obliged

(d) reconciled

(e) authorised

19, I was totally ……….by his line of thinking and could not put forth  any argument.

(a) refuted

(b) nonplussed

(c) degraded

(d) exhausted

(e) demolished

20.The …………….study on import of natural gas from Iran through pipeline would be completed  shortly.

(a) natural

(b) economic

(c) feasibility

(d) calculated

(e) reallocation

21. Man is…………. , however, he is more in need of mental companionship than of physical companionship.

(a) biological

(b) egoistic

(c) gregarious

(d) democratic

(e) emotional

22. Shivalal …………classical music, He always prefers Bhimsen Joshi to Asha Bhonsale and Pandit  Jasraj to Kumar Sanu,

(a) adores

(b) cares

(c) cultivates

(d) apprehends

(e) encompasses

23.He is the best man for this job. He has mental………….. to carry it out.

(a) adroitness

(b) durability

(c) persuasion

(d) predilection

(e) assimilation

24. We still have not given our………. to conduct the survey of natural resources in our state.

(a) consent

(b) request

(c) provision

(d) projection

(e) compliance

25. His party is solely to be blamed for the political ………..in the country.

(a) revival

(b) advocacy

(c) stalemate

(d) devaluation

(e) degradation

Directions (Questions 26 to 30  )

In each of the questions below four sentences are given which are denoted by (A), (B), (C), (D). By using all the four sentences you have to frame a meaningful paragraph.

The correct order of the sentences is your answer .

Choose from the five alternatives and mark It as your answer

26. (A) Across the sky flashed scenes from his life,

(B) He dreamed, he was walking along the beach with the Lord.

(C) One night a man had a dream.

(D) For each scene, he noticed two sets of footprints in the sand; one belonging to him and the other to the Lord.

(a) CABD

(b) CBAD

(c) CEDA

(d) CDAB

(e) CDBA

27.(A) You would be very surprised indeed  to find it hot.

(B) Cold of course.

(C) And yet that was what I found when I visited North Island, the northern part of New Zealand.

(D) When you go bathing in a river or a pond, do you expect the water to be hot or cold?

(a) ACBD

(b) ACDB

(c) CABD

(d) DABC

(e) DBAC

28.(A) Because, if the   manager’s subordinates are inefficient and ineffective and are not helped to increase their efficiency and effectiveness, the task may not be achieved

(B) This must be just as true as the responsibility for achieving his prescribed tasks.

(C) If it is achieved it is at too great a cost, or at the risk of other effects many of which are less obvious.

(D) It is often said that one of the prime responsibilities of a manager is the training and development of his staff.

(a) ADBC

(b) BDAC

(c) CABD

(d) CDBA

(e) DBAC

29.(A) Modern research, however, has proved that there were invaders even before the Aryans poured into this land.

(B) It was thought that they came to a country which was uncivilized and barbarian.

(C) They had evolved a civilization higher than that of the Aryan hordes who came in their wake.

(D) Till recently the Aryans were regarded as the earliest invaders of the land.

(a) ABCD

(b) EDAC

(c) ,BCAD

(d) DBAC

(e) DORA

30.(A) Organisatione today are becoming increasingly populated by youthful, ‘highly skilled, highly educated workers.

(B) Two of the most prevalent and provocative organisational dynamics of our time are the themes of participation and change

(C) These demands for participation are creating pressures for internal organisational change which are matched only by external

environmental pressures for organisational change.

(D) These young, skilled and educated workers bring with them demands for a voice in the determination of their own organisational destiny—a

change to participate in those decisions which affect their organisational lives.

(a) ABDC

(b) ABCD

(c) BADC

(d )BCDA

(e) DCAB

Directions (Questions 31 to 40)

Read each sentence to find out whether there is  any grammatical error in it. The error, if an will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error the answer is (e) i.e. ‘No error’

31. By April next year (a) / I will have been (b) / working in this office (c) / for twenty years. (d) / No error (e)

32. Saroj is  not only involved (a) / in organising conferences and seminars (b) / but also in conducting )c) / adult literacy programmes (d) / No error (e)

33. I have been traveling by local trains (a) /since last several years (b) / but .have never experienced (c) / such a horrible situation as this. (d) / No error (e)

34. By the time he gets back (a) /from his holidays (b) / the milkman has left (c) /twenty one bottles of milk outside his door (d) / No error (e)

35. If I would have realised (a) / what a bad shape our library is in (b) /I would have done something (c) / to arrest the deterioration. (d) / No error (e)

36. He was having a bath (a) / when the phone rang. (b) / Very unwillingly he got out of the bath (c) / and went to answer it. (d) / No error (e)

37. I found this ring (a) / as I dig in the garden. (b) /It looks very old (c) / I wonder who it belonged to. (d) / No error (e)

38. When I heard his knock (a) / I went to the door Cb) / and opened it (c) I but I was not recognise him. (d) / No error (e)

39. India today stands (a) / at crucial cross roads (b)/ with its history (c) / as an independent nation. (d) / No error(e)

40. Have you heard the news? (a) / Mahesh and Mala are engaged. (b) / That is not new. (c)/ I know it for ages. (d) / No error (e)

Directions (Questions 41-50)

In the following passage, There are blanks, each of which numbered. These number printed below the passage and against each five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately in the context of the whole passage. Find out the appropriate word.

It is commonly expected that as science advances, superstition should …41…..Certainly, science brings a new ....(42).... spirit of inquiry into a society where none existed and provides means of …..43.. the so-called miracles. Thus claims of ash out of nothing, idols drinking milk or petrol created from herbs and water can be ....(44).... to rigorous tests and the findings ....(45).... with the known laws of science …….(46)...., the greatest stumbling  block in this processes is the ....(47).... human desire to find or…..48…….. something extraordinary that ,. ..(49).... one above the humdrum of daily living which is why people, are ....(50).... to accept routine  scientific explanations of unexpected events.

41.

(a) recede

(b) revive

(c) dissolve

(d) abandon

(e) depreciate

42.(a) volcanic

(b) burning

(c) critical

(d) powerful

(e) inflammatory

43.(a) diluting

(b) diffusing

(c) directing

(d) disturbing

(e) debunking

44.(a) attached

(b) observed

(c) subjected

(d) projected

(e) visualized

45 (a) cleared

(b) exhibited

(c) criticised

(d) explained

(e) projected

46.(a) yet         .

(b) despite

(c) instead

(d) although

(e) nevertheless

47. (a) innate

(b) sober

(c) wanted

(d)critical

(e) cultivated

48. (a) verify

(b) express

(c) witness

(d) activate

(e) propagate

49. (a) sharpens

(b) replaces

(c) lifts

(d) enlightens

(e) revitalizes

50. (a) eager

(b) curious

(c) unworthy

(d) reluctant

(e) inquisitive

Answers

1 d

2 e

3 e

4 d

5 c

6 c

7 c

8 c

9 d

10 e

11 c

12 c

13 b

14 d

15 b

16 e

17 d

18 d

19 b

20 c

21 c

22 a

23 d

24 a

25 e

26 b

27 e

28 e

29 d

30 c

31 a

32 a

33 b

34 c

35 a

36  c

37 b

38 d

39 c

40 d

41 a

42 c

43 e

44 c

45 b

46 e

47 a

48e

49 c

50 d

Maths Questions on Ages Quantitative Aptitude practice test For SAIL MT Exam India

Maths Questions on Ages Quantitative Aptitude practice test For SAIL MT Exam India


SAIL MTT Exam Consists Of Questions Of Maths

For these Questions Speed as well as accuracy is important

All these Questions are useful for other exams Also

like KVS BAnk PO Clerical and PSU exams

1. The ratio of the ages of Meena and Meera is 4 : 3. The sum of their ages is 28 years. The ratio of their ages after 8 years will be:

(a)4:3

(b)12:11

{c)7:4

(d) 6:5

2.  The ages of Ram and shyam are in the ratio of 3 : 5. After 9 years,the ratio of their ages will becomes 3 :4. The present age of shyam  (inyears) is :

(a)  9

(b) 15

(c) 18

(d) 24

3.The ratio of the ages of Swati and Vani  is 2 : 5. After 8 years, their ages will be in the ratio of 1: 2. The difference in their present ages (in years) is :

(a)24

(b) 26

(c) 29

(d) 32


4.A father is twice as old as his son. 20 years ago, the age of the father was 12 times the age of the son. The present age of the father (in years) is:

( a)44

(b) 32

(c) 22

(d) 45

5.Five years ago, the total of the ages of a father and his son was 40 years.

The ratio of their present ages is    4: 1. What is the present age of the father?

(a) 30 years

(b) 20 years

(c) 25 years

(d) None of these

6. One year ago, Mrs Promila was four times as old as her daughter Swati. Six years hence, Mrs Promila’ s age will exceed her daugther’ s age by 9 years. The ratio of the present ages of Promila and her daughter is:

(a)9:2

(b) 11:3

(c) 12:5

(d)13:4

7.Sachin was twice as old as Ajay 10 years back. How old is AJAY  if Sachin will be 40 years old 10 years hence?

(A) 20 years

(b) 10 years

(c) 30 years

(D)None of these

8. . Ten years ago A was half of B in age. If the ratio of their present ages is 3 : 4, what will be the total of their present ages ?

(a)8 years

(b) 20 years

(c) 30 years

(D) 35 years

9. . Sushil was thrice as old as Snehal 6 years back. Sushil will be times as old as Snehal 6 years hence. How old is Snehal today?

(a)18 years

(b) 24 years

(c)12 years

(d) 15 years

10.The total  of the ages of A, B and C at present is 90 years. Ten years ago, the ratio of their ages was 1: 2: 3. What is the age of B at present?

(a)40 years

(b)30 years

(c) 20 years

(d) 1 8years

11.. The sum of the ages of A, B and C is 96 years:To find out B’s age, which of the following information given in the statements P and Q is/are sufficient?

P : A is 6 years older than C

Q : The total of B and C’s a is 56 years.

(a)P

(b) Q

(c) both P and Q

(d) None of these

12 Sneh’s age is  1/6th of her father’s age Sneh s father’s age will be twice Of Vimal’s age after 10 years. If Vimal’ s eighth birthday was celebrated two years before, then what is Sneh’ s present age?

(a)24 years

(b) 30 years

(c) 6 years

(d) None of these

13. Jayesh is as much younger to Anil as he is older to Prashant, If the sum of the ages of Anil and Prashant is 48 years, what is the age

of Jayesh?

(a)        20 years

(b) 30 years

(c) 24 years

(d) Can not be determined

14. The sum of the ages of a father and son is 45 years. Five years ago,the product of their ages was four times the father’s age at that time.

The present age of father and son, respectively are:

(a)25 years, 10 years

(b) 36 years, 9 years

(c)39 years, 6 years

(d) None of these

15. Kàmla got married 6 years ago. Today her age is 1.25 times her age at the time of marriage Her son's age is 1/10 times her age Her son' s age

is:

a) 2 years.

(b) 3 years.

(c) 4 years

(d) 5 years

16. Ten years ago, Chandrawati’s mother was four times older than her daughter. After ten years, the mother will be twice older than daughter. The  present age of Chandrawati is: ?

(a)5 years

(b) 10 years

(c)4 years

(d) 30 years

17. In 10 years, A will be twice as old B was 10 years ago. If A is now

9 years older than B,B is presently how many years old?

(a)19 years

(b) 29years

(c) 39 years

(d)49 years

18. Two years ago a man was 6 times as old as his son. After 18 years,

he will be twice as old as his son. Their present ages (in years) are:

(a)32,7

(b)34, 9

(c) 36,11

(d) None of these

19.The ages of two persons differ by 20 years. If 5 years ago, the elder one be 5 times as old as the younger one, their present ages (in years) are respectively

(a)30,10

(b) 25, 5

(c) 29, 9

(d) 50, 30

20.. Pushpa is twice as old as Rita was 2 years ago. If the difference of their ages.be 2 years, bow old is Pushpa today?

(a)6 years

(b)8 years

(c) 10 years

(d) 12 years

21.Average age of A and B is 24 years and average age of B, C and D is

22 ears. The sum of the ages of A, B, C and D is: ?

(a)90 years

(b) 96 years

(c)114 years

(d) Data inadequate

22.. Ratio of Ashok’s age to Sandeep’s age is 4 : 3. Ashok will be 26 years old after 6 years How old is Sandeep now?

(a)12 years

(b)15 years

(C) 19 years

(d) 21 years

23.The ratio of kunal’s age and Aruna’s age is 3 5 and the sum of their age is 80 years.

The ratio of their ages after 10 years will be:

(a)2 : 3

(b) 1: 2

(c) 3 : 2

(d) 3: 5

24.. The average age of 12 students is 20 years. If the age of one more student is included, the average decreases by 1. What is the age of the new student?

(a)5 years

(b)7years

(c) 9 years

(d)11 years

25.. The average age of an adult class is 40 years. Twelve new studenta with an average age of 32 years join the class, thereby decreasing the average of the class by 4 years. The original strength of the class was:

(a)10

(b)11

(c)12

(d) 15

Answers

1	d
2	b
3	a
4	a
5	d
6	d
7	a
8	d
9	c
10	b
11	c
12	d
13	c
14	b
15	b
16	c
17	c
18	a
19	a
20	b
21	b
22	b
23	a
24	b
25	c

Basic English test For RRB Exams Practice paper

Basic English test For RRB Exams Practice paper
Model Objective Questions MCQ English
Directions : Each of the following questions contains a small paragraph followed
by a question on it. Ready each paragraph carefully and answer the question
given below it :

1.Through advertising, manufacturing exercises a high degree of control over
consumers desires. However, the manufacturer assumes enormous risks in attempting
to predict what consumers will want and in producing goods in quantity and distributing
them in advance of final selection by the consumers.
The paragraph best supports the statement that manufacturers
(a) Distribute goods directly to the consumers
(b) Can eliminate the risk of overproduction by advertising
(c) Always take moderate and calculated risk
(d) Can predict with great accuracy the success of any product they put on the market
(e) Must depend upon the final consumers for the success of their undertakings
ANSWER: (b)

2. The only true education comes through the stimulation of the child’s powers by
the demands of the social situations in which he finds himself Through these
demands he is stimulated to act as a member of a unity, to emerge from his
original narrowness of action and feeling, and to conceive himself from the stand
point of the welfare of the group to which he belongs.
The passage best supports the statement that real education
(a) Will take place if the children imbibe action and feeling
(b) Will take place if the children are physically strong
(c) Is not provided our schools today
(d) Comes through the interaction with social situations
(e) Comes from the self-centered approach of the students
ANSWER: (d)

3. Exports and imports, a swelling favorable balance of trade, investments
and bank-balances, are not an index or a balance sheet of national prosperity. Till
the beginning of the Second World War, English exports were noticeably greater
than what they are today; And yet England has greater national prosperity
today than it ever had. Because the income of average Englishmen, working
as field and factory laborers, clerks, policemen, petty shopkeepers and shop
assistants, domestic workers and other low-paid workers, has gone up.
The passage best supports the statement that:
(a) A country’s economic standard can be best adjudged by the per capita income.
(b) A country’s balance of trade is the main criteria of determining its
economic prosperity.
(c) A nation’s economy strengthens with the increase in exports.
(d) English trade has continually increased since the Second World War.
ANSWER: (a)

4. The attainment of individual and organizational goals is mutually interdependent
and linked by a common denominator employee work motivation. Organizational
members are motivated to satisfy their personal goals, and they contribute their
efforts to the attainment of organizational objectives as means of achieving these
personal goals. The passage best supports the statement that motivation
(a) Encourages an individual to give priority to personal goals over organizational goals
(b) Is crucial for the survival of an individual and organization
(c) Is the product of an individual’s physical and mental energy
(d) Is the external force which induces ‘an individual to contribute his efforts
(e) Makes, organization and society inseparable
ANSWER: (a)


5. The school has always been the most important means of transferring the
wealth of tradition from one generation to the next. This applies today in an
even higher degree than in former times for, through the modern development
of economy, the family as bearer of tradition and education has become weakened.
This passage best supports the statement that for transferring the wealth of
tradition from one generation to the next-
(a) There are means other than the school
(b) Several different sources must be tried
(c) Economic development plays a crucial role
(d) Modern technology must be put to use
(e) Family, as ever, is the most potent means
ANSWER: (c)

Directions : Pasage given below is followed by some questions.
Each question comprises three statements (A), (B) and (C). In the context of the
passage, decide which one, two, three or none of the statements is/are true.


Passage

“In the Pandit’s complaint he asks why entries could not be made in the
savings bank pass book on the strength of the counterfoil of the pay-in-slip. This
would save the customer from waiting until the actual voucher passed through
various desks/books( The use of the voucher is, in fact the correct procedure. The
delay experienced by Mr. Pandit on that day could have been avoided. On our
instructions the branch manager concerned has met the complaint and explained
the matter. He has also emphasized the great risk to the customer and the bank if
entries are made on the basis of the counterfoils."
6. (A) The writer of this paragraph is another dissatisfied customer.
(B) The paragraph emphasizes that counterfoils should not be used instead
of vouchers.
(C) Use of counterfoils alone may not lead to any risk.
(a) Only A
(b) Only B
(c) Only C
(d) Only A and B
(e) Only B and C
ANSWER: (b)

7. (A) Mr. Pandit complains about a delay in some transaction pat his bank.
(B) Mr. Pandit wants banks to make book entries on the basis of counterfoils.
(C) Entries made on the basis of vouchers do not involve risk.
(a) A and B
(b) B and C
(c) A and C
(d) A, B and C
(e) None is true
ANSWER: (d)

8. (A) In following the correct procedure, unreasonable delays are
always inevitable.
(B) Mr. Pandit‘s complaint was based on full knowledge of the
banking procedure.
(C) Mr. Pandit’s suggestion was appreciated by the bank authorities.
(a) Only A
(b) Only B
(c) Only C
(d) A and B
(e) None is true
ANSWER: (d)



9. (A) The delay experienced by. Mr. Pandit was caused by some temporary
problem.
(B) The entries relating to Mr. Pandit’s case were not done according to
proper procedure.
(C) Mr. Pandit was already aware of the proper procedure.
(a) Only A
(b) Only B
(c) Only C
(d) A and B
(e) B and C
ANSWER: (c)

10. (A) Using counterfoils instead of vouchers is risky not only to the customers
but also to the bank;
(B) The bank 'authorities were not 'insensitive to ' Mr. Pandit’s complaint.
(C) The branch manager paid no heed to the authorities’ instructions.
(a) Only A
(b) Only B
(c) Only C
(d) A and B
(e) A and C
ANSWER: (d)

Directions: Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the
blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete
11. These essays are intellectually........ and represent various levels of complexity.
(a) Revealing
(b) Modern
(c) Superior
(d) Demanding
(e) Persistent
ANSWER: (c)


12. Integrity of character, honesty dependability and discipline ........ with a genuine interest in
your work will go a long way in the achievement of success in your life.
(a) Coupled
(b) Adjoined
(c) Fixed
(d) Attached
(e) Joined
ANSWER: (a)

13. The soldiers were instructed to ........ restraint and handle the situation peacefully .
(a) Exercise
(b) Control
(c) Prevent
(d) Enforce
(e) Remain
ANSWER: (a)


14. The two sisters look so ........ that It is difficult to ten one from the other.
(a) Same
(b) Similar
(c) Identical
(d) Alike
(e) Resembling
ANSWER: (d)

15. Since one cannot read every book, one should be content with making a ....selection.
(a) Normal
(b) Standard
(c) Sample
(d) Moderate
(e) Judicious
ANSWER: (e)

Directions: In each of the following questions, choose the word which can be
substituted for the given phrase/sentence.

16. Something that cures any evil or trouble
(a) Panacea
(b) Manna
(c) Potion
(d) Elixir
ANSWER: (a)

17. Person who doubts the truth of a particular claim
(a) Nihilist
(b) Cynic
(c) Skeptic
(d) Pugnacious
ANSWER: (c)

18. A man devoid of kindly feeling and sympathy
(a) Callous
(b) Cruel
(c) Brute
(d) Egoist
ANSWER: (a)


19. Person who practices unnatural sexual intercourse, especially between male
persons
(a) Voluptuary
(b) Sodomite
(c) Prostitute
(d) Masochist
ANSWER: (b)

20. Continuing fight between parties, families, clans etc
(a) Enmity
(b) Feud
(c) Quarrel
(d) Skirmish
ANSWER: (b)

English Grammar objective Solved Questions One Word for many words

English Grammar objective Solved Questions One Word for many words
English Grammar Quiz one word substitution
In each of the following questions, out of the given alternatives,
choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.



1. Intentional destruction of racial groups
(a) Homicide
(b) Genocide
(c) Fratricide
(d) Regicide
ANSWER: (b)

2. Study of statistics of births, deaths, diseases to show the state of community
(a) Geography
(b) Anthropology
(c) Topography
(d) Demography
ANSWER: (d)

3. A sudden rush of wind
(a) Gale
(b) Typhoon
(c) Gust
(d) Storm
ANSWER: (c)


4. An unexpected stroke of good luck
(G) Fortune
(b) Windfall
(c) Boon
(d) Breakthrough
ANSWER: (b)


5. Not conforming to ordinary poles of behaviour
(a) Lunatic
(b) Absurd
(c) Eccentric
(d) Maniacal
ANSWER: (c)


6. Short descriptive poem of picturesque scene or incident
(a) Malady
(b) Sonnet
(c) Idyll
(d) Charade
ANSWER: (c)




7. A person who is reserved in talks
(a) Reticent
(b) Silent
(c) Mendicant
(d) Garrulous
ANSWER: (a)


8. A raised place on which offerings to a god are made
(a) Mound
(b) Chapel
(c) Altar
(d) Archives
ANSWER: (c)


9. Constant effort to achieve something
(a) Perseverance
(b) Attempt
(c) Enthusiasm
(d) Vigor
ANSWER: (b)


10. A person who looks on the bright side of things
(a) Sycophant
(b) Optimist
(c) Cynic
(d) Pessimist
ANSWER: (b)




11. One who cuts precious stones
(a) Philatelist
(b) Drover
(c) Alpinist
(d) Oculist
ANSWER: (c)


12. A person not sure of the existence of God
(a) Theist
(b) Atheist
(c) Agnostic
(d) Cynic
ANSWER: (c)


13. Which can be easily believed?
(a) Credulous
(b) Creditable
(c) Trustworthy
(d) Credible
ANSWER: (d)


14. A person with full discretionary powers to act on behalf of a country
(a) Ambassador
(b) Emissary
(c) Plenipotentiary
(d) Envoy
ANSWER: (c)




15. To deprive a thing of its holy character
(a) Sacrilege
(b) Blasphemy
(c) Consecrate
(d) Desecrate
ANSWER: (d)

India GK Solved test for Exams

India GK Solved test for Exams
Online General Knowledge Test Solved Objective MCQ Type
1. How many times can a person be elected as President of U.S.A.?
(a) Three times
(b) Two times
(c) No limit
(d) Four times
Answer. (b)

2. Which statutory official in India can participate in Lok Sabha discussions but can
Not vote?
(a) Chief Election Commissioner
(b) Attorney General
(c) Comptroller and Auditor General
(d) Leader of opposition
Answer. (b)

3. What has been the annual exponential growth
Rate of population in India during 1981-91:
(a) l. ll per cent
(b) 2.Ol per cent
(c) 2.l4 per cent
(d) 2.35 per cent
Answer. (c)

4. Where is the Institute of Sugar Technology situated?
(a) Delhi
(b) Pimpri
(c) Kanpur
(d) Mumbai
Answer. (c)

5. Where is Indian Institute of Experimental Medicine located?
(a) Ahmedabad
(b) Calcutta
(c) Lucknow
(d) New Delhi
(e) Pune
Answer. (b)

6. Where the Rajiv Gandhi Institute of Youth Development is being setup?
(a) Hyderabad
(b) New Delhi
(c) Sriperambadur
(d) Ahmedabad
(e) Bombay
Answer. (c)

7. The highest Indian decoration for showing Valour and gallantry in the war is:
(a) Param Vishistha Seva Medal
(b) Ashoka Chakra
(c) Param Vir Chakra
(d) Mahavir Chakra
(e) None of these
Answer. (c)

8. What is the sex ratio in India according to the Census of 1991?
(a) 923 females per 1000 males
(b) 912 females per 1000 males
(c) 927 females per 1000 males
(d) 930 females per 1000 males
Answer. (c)

9. Which institution is responsible for the Formulation of 5 Years Plans in India?
(a) National Productivity Council
(b) Planning Commission
(c) National Development Council
(d) None of these
Answer. (b)

10. Which train in India has the longest route Length?
(a) Himgiri Express
(b) Himsagar Express
(c) G.T. Express
(d) Guwahati-Trivendrum Express
Answer. (b)

11. Electrical Current is measured by:
(a) Voltameter
(b) Anemometer
(c) Watt meter
(d) Ammeter
Answer. (d)

12. Where is SHAR space centre located?
(a) Trivendrum
(b) Bangalore
(c) Shrihari Kota
(d) Arvi
Answer. (c)

13. Which of the following is the name of the
German International Airlines?
(a) Cathay Pacific
(b) Qantas
(c) KLM
(d) Lufthansa
Answer. (d)

14. The deepest point in the oceans is
(a) Marians Trench
(b) Galathea deep
(c) Bartholomew deep
(d) Mindanao deep
Answer. (a)

15. What is the total number of major ports in
India?
(a) 6
(b) 11
(c) 8
(d) 9
Answer. (b)

16. The spinning of the earth on its imaginary
Axis is known as:
(a) Rotation
(b) Aphelion
(c) Perihelion
(d) Revolution
(e) Orbit
Answer. (a)

17. Khajuraho is situated in the state of:
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Madhya Pradesh
(e) Orissa
Answer. (d)


18. What does the Mercator Projection refer to?
(a) Lines of longitude and latitude drawn in
Curved lines
(b) High altitude contours
(c) Lines of latitude and longitude drawn in
Straight lines
(d) Equatorial belt
Answer. (c)

19. Who can preside but cannot vote in one of
The Houses of Parliament?
(a) Speaker
(b) Deputy Speaker
(c) Vice President
(d) Vice Chairman
Answer. (c)

20. Which amendment to the Constitution of
India affirmed the power of the Parliament to
Amend any part of the Constitution including
That relating to Fundamental Rights:
(a) 26th
(b) 25th
(c) 24th
(d) 23rd
Answer. (c)

21. The 38th (Amendment) Act to the Constitution
Of India relates to:
(a) Raising the upper limit of membership Of Lok Sabha
(b) President’s ‘satisfaction’ in declaring Emergency has been made non justiciable
(c) Provision for a Legislative Assembly and Council of minister for Arunachal Pradesh
(d) Sikkim became the 22nd state of the Indian Union
Answer. (b)

22 Under what article of the Constitution of India Can the President take over the administration
Of a State in case its constitutional machinery Breaks down?
(a) Article 83(2)
(b) Article 352
(c) Article 356
(d) Article 343
Answer. (c)

23. How many languages are recognized by the Constitution of India in the 8th Schedule?
(a) 14
(b) 16
(c) 18
(d) 12
Answer. (c)


24. Into how many commands is the Indian army Organized?
(a) Four
(b) Six
(c) Five
(d) Seven
Answer. (b)


25. The oceans cover ...... of the surface of the
Earth:
(a) 50%
(b) 60%
(c) 71%
(d) 80%
(e) 90%
Answer. (c)

Solved Question Papers, Answer : Probationary Officer Reasoning

Solved Question Papers, Answer : Probationary Officer Reasoning
General intelligence and reasoning solved papers
1. Rearrange the first four letters, in any way, of the word DECISION. Find how many words can be formed by using all the four words.
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) More than three
(e) No meaningful word is formed
Ans. (a)
2. A number of friends decided to go on a picnic and planned to spend Rs 960 on food. Four of them, however, did not turn up. As a consequence, the remaining ones had to contribute Rs 40 each extra. The number of those who attended the picnic was:
(a) 8
(b) 12
(c) 16
(d) 24
Ans. (a)
3. In a caravan, in addition to 50 hens, there are 45 goats and 8 camels with some keepers. If the total number of feet be 224 more than the number of heads in the caravan, find the number of keepers.
(a) 5
(b) 8
(c) 10
(d) 15
Ans. (d)
Directions (Questions 4 and 5): Study the following information and answer the questions given below it:
There is a group of five persons K, G, H, R and J.
(i) K, G and H are intelligent
(ii) K, R and J are hard-working
(iii) R, H and J are honest and
(iv) K, G and J are ambitious
4. Which of the following persons is neither hardworking nor ambitious?
(a) K
(b) G
(c) H
(d) R
(e) None of these
Ans. (c)
5. Which of the following persons is neither honest nor hard working but is ambitious?
(a) K
(b) G
(c) R
(d) H
(e) None of these
Ans. (b)
6. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and Fare sitting in a circle. B is between F and C; A is between E and D; F is to the left of D. Who is between A and F?
(a) B
(b) C
(c) D
(d) A
(e) F
Ans. (c)

7. In a group of cows and hens, the number of legs is 14 more than twice the number of heads. How many cows are in the group?
(a) 5
(b) 7
(c) 11
(d) 12
(e) 9
Ans. (b)

8. If 36 ? 32 = 9623; 25 ? 82 = 8522; 68 ? 75 = 7856, then 47 ? 52 = ?
(a) 5742
(b) 5274
(c) 7427
(d) 5724
(e) 2574
Ans. (d)

9. If 32 ? 41 = 15; 51 ? 34 = 46; 41 ? 52 = 37, then 87 ? 53 = ?
(a) 68
(b) 64
(c) 85
(d) 18
(e) 42
Ans. (d)
10. Which letter occurs most often in the word?
APPROPRIATE
(a) A
(b) E
(c) R
(d) P
Ans. (d)
11. How many independent words can be formed without changing the order of the letters and using each letter only once?
CAPABILITY
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) None
Ans. (b)
12. If it is possible to form a word with the first, fourth, seventh and eleventh letters of the word ‘SUPERFLOUS’, write the first letter of that word. Otherwise, X is the answer.
(a) S
(b) L
(c) O
(d) X
Ans. (d)
Directions (Questions 13 to 16): Each of the following questions is based on the following alphabet series.
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
13. Which letter is eighth to the left of sixteenth letter from the right end?
(a) B
(b) S
(c) C
(d) H
Ans. (c)
14. Which letter is exactly midway between H and S in the given alphabet?
(a) No such letter
(b) L
(c) M
(d) O
Ans. (a)
15. Which letter should be ninth letter to the left of ninth letter from the right, if the first half of the given alphabet is reversed.
(a) D
(b) E
(c) F
(d) I
Ans. (b)
16. If every even letter beginning from B is replaced by odd number starting with 3, which letter/number will be the third to the right of the tenth number/letter counting from your right.
(a) M
(b) S
(c) 11
(d) 21
Ans. (d)
17. Pointing out to a photograph, a man tells his friend, “She is the daughter of the only son of my father’s wife.” How is the girl related to the man in the photograph?
(a) Daughter
(b) Cousin
(c) Mother
(d) Sister
(e) Niece
Ans. (a)
18. Pointing to a man in a photograph, a woman said, “His brother’s father is the only son of my grand father.” How is the woman related to the man in the photograph?
(a) Mother
(b) Aunt
(c) Sister
(d) Daughter
(e) Grand mother
Ans. (c)
19. In a row of students of Ravi's class, Ravi is 17th from either end of the row. How many students are there in his class?
(a) 34
(b) 35
(c) 33
(d) 19
(e) 36
Ans. (c)
20. In a cricket season, India defeated Australia twice, West Indies defeated India twice, Australia defeated West Indies twice, India defeated New Zealand twice and West Indies defeated New Zealand twice which country has lost most number of times?
(a) India
(b) Australia
(c) New Zealand
(d) West Indies
(e) None of these
Ans. (c)
21. Six students A, B, C, D, Band F are sitting in a field. A and B are from Delhi while the rest are from Bangalore. D and F are tall while others are short A, C, Dare girls while others are boys. Which is the tall girl from Bangalore?
(a) C
(b) D
(c) E
(d) F
(e) None of these
Ans. (b)

UGC NET Solved Model paper Music

UGC NET Solved Model paper Music
Sample Questions papers of competitive exams of india:Music

1. Andolan Sankhya of Pancham is?
(A) 240
(C) 320
(B)270
(D)360

2. The Book written by Pt.Damodar
(A) Sadrag Chandrodaya
(B) Sangeetraj
(C) Sangeet Ratnakar
(D) Sangeet Parijat

3. According to Modern Shruti Swara division, Pancham is placed on which Shruti?
(A)9th
(B) 10th
(C)11th
(D) 13th

4. Musician of Maihar Gharana
(A) Ustad Vilayat Khan
(B) Ustad Halim Zaffar Khan
(C) Ustad Alialcbar Khan
(D) Ustad Mushtak Au Khan

5. Author of Abhinav Bharti
(A) Bharat
(B) Dattil
(C) Abhinavgupta
(D) Kallinath

6. Author of Rag-Darpan
(A) Dr. Mahesh Saxena
(B) Pt. Omkar Nath Thakur
(C) Fakirullah
(D) Bharat

7. The views of Bhattnayak on Rasa is called?
(A) Uttpathivad
(B) Anukritivad
(C) Muktivad
(D) Abhivyaktivad

8. No. of Sanchari Bhava?
(A)23
(B) 13
(C)33
(D) 43

9. Chittasvaras interspersed with Jatis?
(A) Tillana
(B) Chitta Tanam
(C) Sollukettu
(D) Jatisvaram

10. Pann Panchamam corresponds to?
(A) Ahiri Raga
(B) Hindolam
(C) Malahari Raga
(D) Ehairavi

11. Author of Sangita Chandrika?
(A) Ahobala
(B) Attoor Krishna Pisharati
(C) Muttath Bhagavatar
(D) Damodara Misra

12. Mattakokila is an ancient?
(A)Venu
(B) Vina
(C)Yazh
(D) Drum

13. 2009 Padmasri awardee in Mizhavu
(A) Naryanan Namboothiri
(B) Madhava Chakyar
(C) Kalamandalam Gopi
(D) Kochu Govindan Pillai

14. Use of Rishabh in Pooriya Kalyan?
(A) Like Marwa
(B) Like Pooriya
(C) Like Poorvi
(D) Like Kalyan

15. Assertion and Reasoning— Assertion (A) : Any Art is recognised as full of aesthetics when the artist is successful in conveying
his expressions to the viewers! listeners through the medium brush, colours, words and sound.
Reasoning (R): Harmony bet ween the emotions of artist and receiver is desirable.
(A)(A) is true, but (R) is false
(B)(A) is false, but (R) is true
(C)Both (A) and (R) are true
(D)Both (A) and (R) are false

16. How many Alankaras have been described by Sharahgdeo?
(A)12
(B) 25
(C)63
(D) 13

17. The author of ‘Saundarya, Rasa Avam Sarigit’.
(A) Prof. Premlata Sharma
,(B) Dr. Aban Mistry
(C) Prof. Swatantra Sharma
(D) Prof. Pankaj Mala Sharma

18. ‘Aavap’ is a
(A) Sa-shabda Kriya
(B) Nishabda Kriya
(C) Prati Kriya
(D) Male Kriya

19. Match the following—
List-I
(a) Zakir Hussain
(b) Vikku Vinayak Ram
(c) Paighat Mani Ayyer
(d) Pagal Das
List-II
1. Mridangam
2. Ghatam
3. Pakhwaj
4. Tabla
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 4 2 1 3
20. Tabla artist of Farukkhabad Gharana?
(A)Ustad Ileus Hussain
(B)Pt. Sheetal Prasad Mishra
(C)Prof. Mukund Bhale
(D)Ustad Mohammad Akaram

21. Arrange them in chronological order according to time period.
Codes:
(A) Sharangdeo, Bharat, Jaidev,Matang
(B) Bharat, Matang, Jaidev,Sharangdeo
(C) Matang, Jaidev, Sharangdeo,Bharat
(D) Jaidev, Bharat, Matang,Sharangdeo

22. This is helpful in invoking Ehavas—
(A) Anubhav
(B) Uddipan
(C) Alamban
(D) Bibhav

23. Match the following—
List-I
(a) Pt. V. C. Jog
(b) Chitti Babu
(c) U. Amajad Au
(d) U. Latteef Ahmed
List-II
1. Veena Player
2. Violin Player
3. Tabla Player
4. Sarod Player
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 1 2 3 4
24. First musician felicitated with ‘Bharat Ratna’.
(A) Pt. Ravishankar
(B)Lata Mangeshkar
(C)M. S. Subbalakshmi
(D)Pt. Bhimsen Joshi

25. The propounder of Rasa
Theory
(A)Matang
(B) Bharat
(C)Ahobal
(D) Srinivas

Answers :

1 D
2 B
3 D
4 C
5 C
6 C
7 C
8 C
9 B
10 D
11 D
12 B
13 C
14 A
15 C
16 C
17 A
18 A
19 D
20 A
21 B
22 D
23 A
24 C
25 B