Computer Awareness Previous Paper 201 Union Bank India PO exam
Free Online Bank Exam Question Paper
1. You can keep your personal files/folders in—
(A) My folder
(B) My Documents
(C) My Files
(D) My Text
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
2. The primary purpose of software is to turn data into—
(A) Web sites
(B) Information
(C) Programs
(D) Objects
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
3. A directory within a directory is called—
(A) Mini Directory
(B) Junior Directory
(C) Part Directory
(D) Sub Directory
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
4. A compiler translates a program written in a high-level language into—
(A) Machine language
(B) An algorithm
(C) A debugged program
(D) Java
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
5. When you turn on the computer, the boot routine will perform this test—
(A) RAM test
(B) Disk drive test
(C) Memory test
(D) Power-on self-test
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
6. A ……is a unique name that you give to a file of information.
(A) device letter
(B) folder
(C) filename
(D) filename extension
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
7. Hardware includes—
(A) all devices used to input data into a computer
(B) sets of instructions that a computer runs or executes
(C) the computer and all the devices connected to it that are used to input and output data
(D) all devices involved in processing information including the central processing unit, memory and storage
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
8. A ……… contains specific rules and words that express the logical steps of an algorithm.
(A) programming language
(B) syntax
(C) programming structure
(D) logic chart
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
9. All the deleted files go to—
(A) Recycle Bin
(B) Task Bar
(C) Tool Bar
(D) My Computer
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
10. The simultaneous processing of two or more programs by multiple processors is—
(A) Multiprogramming
(B) Multitasking
(C) Time-sharing
(D) Multiprocessing
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
11. The secret code that restricts entry to some programs—
(A) Password
(B) Passport
(C) Entry-code
(D) Access-code
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
12. Computers use the ……… number system to store data and perform calculations.
(A) binary
(B) octal
(C) decimal
(D) hexadecimal
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
13. The main function of the ALU is to—
(A) Perform arithmetic and logical operations
(B) Store data and information for future use
(C) Control computer output, such as printing
(D) Monitor all computer activities
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
14. ……is the process of carrying out commands.
(A) Fetching
(B) Storing
(C) Executing
(D) Decoding
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
15. Softcopy is the intangible output, so then what is hardcopy ?
(A) The physical parts of the computer
(B) The printed parts of the computer
(C) The printed output
(D) The physical output devices
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
16. A(n) ……… is a program that makes the computer easier to use.
(A) utility
(B) application
(C) operating system
(D) network
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
17. A complete electronic circuit with transistors and other electronic components on a small silicon chip is called a(n)—
(A) Workstation
(B) CPU
(C) Magnetic disk
(D) Integrated circuit
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
18. Computer systems are comprised of—
(A) Hardware, programs, processors, procedures and people
(B) Hardware, programs, information, people and procedures
(C) Hardware, programs, information, people and networks
(D) Hardware, software, procedures, networks and people
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
19. An error in a computer program—
(A) Crash
(B) Power Failure
(C) Bug
(D) Virus
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
20. What is output ?
(A) What the processor takes from the user
(B) What the user gives to the processor
(C) What the processor gets from the user
(D) What the processor gives to the user
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
21. The person who writes and tests computer programs is called a—
(A) programmer
(B) computer scientist
(C) software engineer
(D) project developer
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
22. A set of instructions telling the computer what to do is called—
(A) mentor
(B) instructor
(C) compiler
(D) program
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
23. What menu is selected to print ?
(A) Edit
(B) Special
(C) File
(D) Tools
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
24. What is backup ?
(A) Adding more components to your network
(B) Protecting data by copying it from the original source to a different destination
(C) Filtering old data from the new data
(D) Accessing data on tape
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
25. The term bit is short for—
(A) Megabyte
(B) Binary language
(C) Binary digit
(D) Binary number
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
26. A saved document is referred to as a—
(A) file
(B) word
(C) folder
(D) project
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
27. Specialized programs that assist users in locating information on the Web are called—
(A) Information engines
(B) Search engines
(C) Web browsers
(D) Resource locators
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
28. An application program has which one of the following functions ?
(A) It specifies the informationprocessing procedures required by a particular informationprocessing job
(B) It controls the input/output and storage functions of the computer system
(C) It provides various support services for the computer system
(D) It supervises the operations of the CPU
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
29. In page preview mode—
(A) You can see all pages of your document
(B) You can only see the page you are currently working
(C) You can only see pages that do not contain graphics
(D) You can only see the title page of your document
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
30. An operating system that can do multitasking means that—
(A) The operating system can divide up work between several CPUs
(B) Several programs can be operated concurrently
(C) Multiple people can use the computer concurrently
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
31. The quickest and easiest way in Word, to locate a particular word or phrase in a document is to use the ……… command.
(A) Replace
(B) Find
(C) Lookup
(D) Search
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
32. What is the default file extension for all Word documents ?
(A) WRD
(B) TXT
(C) DOC
(D) FIL
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
33. With a CD you can—
(A) Read
(B) Write
(C) Read and Write
(D) Either Read or Write
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
34. A collection of interrelated records is called a—
(A) Utility file
(B) Management information system
(C) Database
(D) Spreadsheet
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
35. To move to the beginning of a line of text, press the ……… key.
(A) PageUp
(B) A
(C) Home
(D) Enter
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
36. The term ‘user interface’ refers to—
(A) What the user sees on the screen and how they can interact with it
(B) How the operating system responds to user commands
(C) the means by which the user interacts with the peripheral devices on the computer
(D) The monitor that is available for the computer
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
37. The background of any Word document—
(A) Is always white colour
(B) Is the colour you preset under the Options menu
(C) Is always the same for the entire document
(D) Can have any colour you choose
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
38. Reusable optical storage will typically have the acronym—
(A) CD
(B) DVD
(C) ROM
(D) RW
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
39. For creating a document, you use ……… command at File Menu.
(A) Open
(B) Close
(C) New
(D) Save
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
40. The contents of ……… are lost when the computer turns off.
(A) storage
(B) input
(C) output
(D) memory
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
41. Grouping and processing all of a firm’s transactions at one time is called—
(A) A database management system
(B) Batch processing
(C) A real-time system
(D) An on-line system
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
42. A printer is this kind of device—
(A) Input
(B) Word processing
(C) Processing
(D) Output
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
43. Text in a column is generally aligned—
(A) Justified
(B) Right
(C) Center
(D) Left
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
44. What type of device is a computer mouse ?
(A) Input
(B) Output
(C) Software
(D) Storage
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
45. In Excel, Charts are created using which option ?
(A) Chart Wizard
(B) Pivot Table
(C) Pie Chart
(D) Bar Chart
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
46. What is the permanent memory built into your computer called ?
(A) RAM
(B) ROM
(C) CPU
(D) CD-ROM
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
47. If text was highlighted and ‘Edit’ ‘Copy’ was clicked, what would happen ?
(A) Text would be copied from the document and placed in the clipboard
(B) Text would be removed from the document and placed in the clipboard
(C) Text from the clipboard would be placed in the document at the place where the cursor is blinking
(D) (B) and (C) above
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
48. You can start Microsoft Word by using ……… button.
(A) New
(B) Start
(C) Program
(D) Control Panel
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
49. You click at B to make the text—
(A) Italics
(B) Underlined
(C) Italics and Underlined
(D) Bold
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
50. The……becomes different shapes depending on the task you are performing.
(A) Active tab
(B) Insertion point
(C) Mouse pointer
(D) Ribbon
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
Tuesday, August 30, 2011
Friday, August 26, 2011
Free Online Practice Gk test general Science
Free Online Practice Gk test general Science
Free Online General Knowledge Preparation Test Containing Basic Questions on general Science
1. Rusting of iron is due to formation of-
(a) Ferric hydroxide
(b) Hydrated ferrous oxide
(c) Hydrated ferric oxide
(d) Ferrous oxide
(e) None of these
Answer. (a)
2. The enzyme found in the saliva is-
(a) Ptylin
(b) Pepsin
(c) Maltase
(d) Lipase
(e) Amylase
Answer. (a)
3. Diabetes incipidus is caused due to the
Deficiency of-
(a) Insulin
(b) Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH)
(c) Glucagon
(d) Thyroxine
(e) ASH
Answer. (b)
4. A new galaxy known as Carina Dwarf has
Been discovered by-
(a) Dr. Russell Cannon of Britain
(b) Dr. Raja Rammana of India
(c) A Russian scientist
(d) A Swiss scientist
(e) An Italian scientist
Answer. (a)
5. Anaemia in man is caused due to the
Deficiency of-
(a) Vitamin C
(b) Vitamin B12
(c) Vitamin A
(d) Folic acid
(e) Vitamin D
Answer. (b)
6. What is the chemical name for Vitamin B1?
(a) Glycodin
(b) Cholesterol
(c) Glucose
(d) Thiamine
(e) Riboflavine
Answer. (d)
7. Chloromycetin is obtained from-
(a) Streptomyces griseus
(b) Streptomyces venezuelae
(c) Acetobacter aceti
(d) Aspergillus Niger
(e) All of these
Answer. (b)
8. The substance which acts as a strong
Bleaching agent and disinfectant is-
(a) Bromine
(b) Iodine
(c) Chlorine
(d) Fluorine
(e) Astatine
Answer. (c)
9. Which was the first country whose scientists
Succeeded in fertilizing the human embryo in the test-tube?
(a) U. S. A.
(b) U.S.S.R.
(c) U. K.
(d) India
(e) China
Answer. (c)
10. Which is the only mammal which can fly?
(a) Whale
(b) Snake
(d) Hen
(d) Lizard
(e) Bat
Answer. (e)
11. The equivalent of Watt can be expressed
In-
(a) Foot-pounds
(b) Foot-pounds per second
(c) Pounds per square inch
(d) Calories
(e) Volts
Answer. (b)
12. Plants are killed in winter by frost because-
(a) Water expands and breaks the cells
(b) Water in the plants freezes
(c) Of desication
(d) N0 photosynthesis at low temperature
(e) None of these
Answer. (c)
13. The outer most layer of epidermis is-
(a) Stratum germinatum
(b) Stratum lucidium
(c) Stratum granulosum
(d) Stratum corneum
(e) None of these
Answer. (d)
14. Why is rotation of crops essential?
(a) For increasing the quantity of minerals
(b) For increasing the quantity of proteins
(c) For getting different kinds of crops
(d) For increasing fertility of the soil
(e) For all the above purposes
Answer. (d)
15. Most of the atmospheric nitrogen in nature
Is fixed by-
(a) Prokaryotes
(b) Anabaena
(c) Green plants
(d) Azotobacter
(e) All of these
Answer. (a)
16. What is the lowest frequency we can hear
About?
(a) 2000 vibrations per second
(b) 20O vibrations per second
(c) 100 vibrations per second
(d) 20 vibrations per second
(e) 500 vibrations per second
Answer. (d)
17. Soft water is used in industrial operations
Because-
(a) It is a better conductor
(b) It boils at a lower temperature
(c) It leaves less mineral deposits as scales
(d) It has less living organisms
(e) It tastes better
Answer. (c)
18. An element used as a semi-conductor in transistor is-
(a) Chromium
(b) Silicon
(c) Germanium
(d) Gold
(e) Copper
Answer. (c)
19. As a person becomes older, his blood pressure generally-
(a) Decreases sharply
(b) Increases
(c) Varies widely
(d) Remains the same
(e) Decreases
Answer. (b)
20. Which is the most malleable and ductile of all metals?
(a) Gold
(b) Silver
(C) Aluminum
(d) Tungsten
(e) Platinum
Answer. (a)
21. Laws of heredity were enunciated by-
(a) Charles Darwin
(b) Herbert Spencer
(c) Lamarck
(d) A. C. Benson
(e) Gragor Mendel
Answer. (e)
22. The length of night on Venus is-
(a) 180 earth days
(b) 135 earth days
(c) 118 earth days
(d) 50 earth days
(e) 3O earth days
Answer. (c)
23. Low melting point alloys usually contain
Lead and-
(a) Zinc
(b) Copper
(c) Mercury
(d) Aluminium
Answer. (d)
24. Hepatitis is a disease of the-
(a) Eyes
(b) Liver
(C) Kidney
(d) Heart
(e) Brain
Answer. (b)
25. Which of the following is not concerned
With lungs?
(a) Respiration
(b) Pneumonia
(c) Pulmonary tuberculosis
(d) Purification of blood
(e) Epilepsy
Answer. (e)
Free Online General Knowledge Preparation Test Containing Basic Questions on general Science
1. Rusting of iron is due to formation of-
(a) Ferric hydroxide
(b) Hydrated ferrous oxide
(c) Hydrated ferric oxide
(d) Ferrous oxide
(e) None of these
Answer. (a)
2. The enzyme found in the saliva is-
(a) Ptylin
(b) Pepsin
(c) Maltase
(d) Lipase
(e) Amylase
Answer. (a)
3. Diabetes incipidus is caused due to the
Deficiency of-
(a) Insulin
(b) Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH)
(c) Glucagon
(d) Thyroxine
(e) ASH
Answer. (b)
4. A new galaxy known as Carina Dwarf has
Been discovered by-
(a) Dr. Russell Cannon of Britain
(b) Dr. Raja Rammana of India
(c) A Russian scientist
(d) A Swiss scientist
(e) An Italian scientist
Answer. (a)
5. Anaemia in man is caused due to the
Deficiency of-
(a) Vitamin C
(b) Vitamin B12
(c) Vitamin A
(d) Folic acid
(e) Vitamin D
Answer. (b)
6. What is the chemical name for Vitamin B1?
(a) Glycodin
(b) Cholesterol
(c) Glucose
(d) Thiamine
(e) Riboflavine
Answer. (d)
7. Chloromycetin is obtained from-
(a) Streptomyces griseus
(b) Streptomyces venezuelae
(c) Acetobacter aceti
(d) Aspergillus Niger
(e) All of these
Answer. (b)
8. The substance which acts as a strong
Bleaching agent and disinfectant is-
(a) Bromine
(b) Iodine
(c) Chlorine
(d) Fluorine
(e) Astatine
Answer. (c)
9. Which was the first country whose scientists
Succeeded in fertilizing the human embryo in the test-tube?
(a) U. S. A.
(b) U.S.S.R.
(c) U. K.
(d) India
(e) China
Answer. (c)
10. Which is the only mammal which can fly?
(a) Whale
(b) Snake
(d) Hen
(d) Lizard
(e) Bat
Answer. (e)
11. The equivalent of Watt can be expressed
In-
(a) Foot-pounds
(b) Foot-pounds per second
(c) Pounds per square inch
(d) Calories
(e) Volts
Answer. (b)
12. Plants are killed in winter by frost because-
(a) Water expands and breaks the cells
(b) Water in the plants freezes
(c) Of desication
(d) N0 photosynthesis at low temperature
(e) None of these
Answer. (c)
13. The outer most layer of epidermis is-
(a) Stratum germinatum
(b) Stratum lucidium
(c) Stratum granulosum
(d) Stratum corneum
(e) None of these
Answer. (d)
14. Why is rotation of crops essential?
(a) For increasing the quantity of minerals
(b) For increasing the quantity of proteins
(c) For getting different kinds of crops
(d) For increasing fertility of the soil
(e) For all the above purposes
Answer. (d)
15. Most of the atmospheric nitrogen in nature
Is fixed by-
(a) Prokaryotes
(b) Anabaena
(c) Green plants
(d) Azotobacter
(e) All of these
Answer. (a)
16. What is the lowest frequency we can hear
About?
(a) 2000 vibrations per second
(b) 20O vibrations per second
(c) 100 vibrations per second
(d) 20 vibrations per second
(e) 500 vibrations per second
Answer. (d)
17. Soft water is used in industrial operations
Because-
(a) It is a better conductor
(b) It boils at a lower temperature
(c) It leaves less mineral deposits as scales
(d) It has less living organisms
(e) It tastes better
Answer. (c)
18. An element used as a semi-conductor in transistor is-
(a) Chromium
(b) Silicon
(c) Germanium
(d) Gold
(e) Copper
Answer. (c)
19. As a person becomes older, his blood pressure generally-
(a) Decreases sharply
(b) Increases
(c) Varies widely
(d) Remains the same
(e) Decreases
Answer. (b)
20. Which is the most malleable and ductile of all metals?
(a) Gold
(b) Silver
(C) Aluminum
(d) Tungsten
(e) Platinum
Answer. (a)
21. Laws of heredity were enunciated by-
(a) Charles Darwin
(b) Herbert Spencer
(c) Lamarck
(d) A. C. Benson
(e) Gragor Mendel
Answer. (e)
22. The length of night on Venus is-
(a) 180 earth days
(b) 135 earth days
(c) 118 earth days
(d) 50 earth days
(e) 3O earth days
Answer. (c)
23. Low melting point alloys usually contain
Lead and-
(a) Zinc
(b) Copper
(c) Mercury
(d) Aluminium
Answer. (d)
24. Hepatitis is a disease of the-
(a) Eyes
(b) Liver
(C) Kidney
(d) Heart
(e) Brain
Answer. (b)
25. Which of the following is not concerned
With lungs?
(a) Respiration
(b) Pneumonia
(c) Pulmonary tuberculosis
(d) Purification of blood
(e) Epilepsy
Answer. (e)
Monday, August 1, 2011
Pharmacodynamics Objective test
Pharmacodynamics Objective test
Pharmacodynamics Practice Exam
Objective measures of the pharmacodynamic
1. Pharmacodynamics involves the study of following EXCEPT:
a) Biological and therapeutic effects of drugs
b) Absorption and distribution of drugs
c) Mechanisms of drug action
d) Drug interactions
Ans : b
2. Pharmacodynamics involves the following?
a) Information about main mechanisms of drug absorption
b) Information about unwanted effects
c) Information about biological barriers
d) Information about excretion of a drug from the organism
Ans : b
3. What does “affinity” mean?
a) A measure of how tightly a drug binds to plasma proteins
b) A measure of how tightly a drug binds to a receptor
c) A measure of inhibiting potency of a drug
d) A measure of bioavailability of a drug
Ans : b
4. An agonist is a substance that:
a) Interacts with the receptor without producing any effect
b) Interacts with the receptor and initiates changes in cell function, producing various effects
c) Increases concentration of another substance to produce effect
d) Interacts with plasma proteins and doesn’t produce any effect
Ans : b
5. If an agonist can produce submaximal effects and has moderate efficacy it’s called:
a) Partial agonist
b) Antagonist
c) Agonist-antagonist
d) Full agonist
Ans : a
6. A competitive antagonist is a substance that:
a) Interacts with receptors and produces submaximal effect
b) Binds to the same receptor site and progressively inhibits the agonist response
c) Binds to the nonspecific sites of tissue
d) Binds to one receptor subtype as an agonist and to another as an antagonist
Ans : b
7. Irreversible interaction of an antagonist with a receptor is due to:
a) Ionic bonds
b) Hydrogen bonds
c) Covalent bonds
d) All of the above
Ans : c
8.. Tick the second messenger of G-protein-coupled (metabotropic) receptor:
a) Adenylyl cyclase
b) Sodium ions
c) Phospholipase C
d) cAMP
Ans : d
9. The increase of second messengers’ (cAMP, cGMP, Ca2+ etc.) concentration leads to:
a) Inhibition of intracellular protein kinases and protein phosphorylation
b) Proteinkinases activation and protein phosphorylation
c) Blocking of interaction between a receptor and an effector
d) Antagonism with endogenous ligands
Ans : b
10. All of the following statements about efficacy and potency are true EXCEPT:
a) Efficacy is usually a more important clinical consideration than potency
b) Efficacy is the maximum effect of a drug
c) Potency is a comparative measure, refers to the different doses of two drugs that are needed to produce the same effect
d) The ED50 is a measure of drug’s efficacy
Ans : d
11. Pick out the correct definition of a toxic dose:
a) The amount of substance to produce the minimal biological effect
b) The amount of substance to produce effects hazardous for an organism
c) The amount of substance to produce the necessary effect in most of patients
d) The amount of substance to fast creation of high concentration of medicine in an organism
Ans : b
12. What term is used to describe a more gradual decrease in responsiveness to a drug, taking days or weeks to develop?
a) Refractoriness
b) Cumulative effect
c) Tolerance
d) Tachyphylaxis
Ans : d
13. Tachyphylaxis is:
a) A drug interaction between two similar types of drugs
b) Very rapidly developing tolerance
c) A decrease in responsiveness to a drug, taking days or weeks to develop
d) None of the above
Ans : b
14. Tolerance and drug resistance can be a consequence of:
a) Drug dependence
b) Increased metabolic degradation
c) Depressed renal drug excretion
d) Activation of a drug after hepatic first-pass
Ans : b
15. Tolerance develops because of:
a) Diminished absorption
b) Rapid excretion of a drug
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above
Ans : d
16. The situation when failure to continue administering the drug results in serious psychological and somatic disturbances is
called?
a) Tachyphylaxis
b) Sensibilization
c) Abstinence syndrome
d) Idiosyncrasy
Ans : c
17. What is the type of drug-to-drug interaction which is the result of interaction at receptor, cell, enzyme or organ level?
a) Pharmacodynamic interaction
b) Physical and chemical interaction
c) Pharmaceutical interaction
d) Pharmacokinetic interaction
Ans : a
18. If two drugs with the same effect, taken together, produce an effect that is equal in magnitude to the sum of the effects of
the drugs given individually, it is called as:
a) Antagonism
b) Potentiation
c) Additive effect
d) None of the above
Ans : c
19. The types of antagonism are:
a) Summarized
b) Potentiated
c) Additive
d) Competitive
Ans : d
20. A teratogenic action is:
a) Toxic action on the liver
b) Negative action on the fetus causing fetal malformation
c) Toxic action on blood system
d) Toxic action on kidneys
Ans : b
Pharmacodynamics Practice Exam
Objective measures of the pharmacodynamic
1. Pharmacodynamics involves the study of following EXCEPT:
a) Biological and therapeutic effects of drugs
b) Absorption and distribution of drugs
c) Mechanisms of drug action
d) Drug interactions
Ans : b
2. Pharmacodynamics involves the following?
a) Information about main mechanisms of drug absorption
b) Information about unwanted effects
c) Information about biological barriers
d) Information about excretion of a drug from the organism
Ans : b
3. What does “affinity” mean?
a) A measure of how tightly a drug binds to plasma proteins
b) A measure of how tightly a drug binds to a receptor
c) A measure of inhibiting potency of a drug
d) A measure of bioavailability of a drug
Ans : b
4. An agonist is a substance that:
a) Interacts with the receptor without producing any effect
b) Interacts with the receptor and initiates changes in cell function, producing various effects
c) Increases concentration of another substance to produce effect
d) Interacts with plasma proteins and doesn’t produce any effect
Ans : b
5. If an agonist can produce submaximal effects and has moderate efficacy it’s called:
a) Partial agonist
b) Antagonist
c) Agonist-antagonist
d) Full agonist
Ans : a
6. A competitive antagonist is a substance that:
a) Interacts with receptors and produces submaximal effect
b) Binds to the same receptor site and progressively inhibits the agonist response
c) Binds to the nonspecific sites of tissue
d) Binds to one receptor subtype as an agonist and to another as an antagonist
Ans : b
7. Irreversible interaction of an antagonist with a receptor is due to:
a) Ionic bonds
b) Hydrogen bonds
c) Covalent bonds
d) All of the above
Ans : c
8.. Tick the second messenger of G-protein-coupled (metabotropic) receptor:
a) Adenylyl cyclase
b) Sodium ions
c) Phospholipase C
d) cAMP
Ans : d
9. The increase of second messengers’ (cAMP, cGMP, Ca2+ etc.) concentration leads to:
a) Inhibition of intracellular protein kinases and protein phosphorylation
b) Proteinkinases activation and protein phosphorylation
c) Blocking of interaction between a receptor and an effector
d) Antagonism with endogenous ligands
Ans : b
10. All of the following statements about efficacy and potency are true EXCEPT:
a) Efficacy is usually a more important clinical consideration than potency
b) Efficacy is the maximum effect of a drug
c) Potency is a comparative measure, refers to the different doses of two drugs that are needed to produce the same effect
d) The ED50 is a measure of drug’s efficacy
Ans : d
11. Pick out the correct definition of a toxic dose:
a) The amount of substance to produce the minimal biological effect
b) The amount of substance to produce effects hazardous for an organism
c) The amount of substance to produce the necessary effect in most of patients
d) The amount of substance to fast creation of high concentration of medicine in an organism
Ans : b
12. What term is used to describe a more gradual decrease in responsiveness to a drug, taking days or weeks to develop?
a) Refractoriness
b) Cumulative effect
c) Tolerance
d) Tachyphylaxis
Ans : d
13. Tachyphylaxis is:
a) A drug interaction between two similar types of drugs
b) Very rapidly developing tolerance
c) A decrease in responsiveness to a drug, taking days or weeks to develop
d) None of the above
Ans : b
14. Tolerance and drug resistance can be a consequence of:
a) Drug dependence
b) Increased metabolic degradation
c) Depressed renal drug excretion
d) Activation of a drug after hepatic first-pass
Ans : b
15. Tolerance develops because of:
a) Diminished absorption
b) Rapid excretion of a drug
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above
Ans : d
16. The situation when failure to continue administering the drug results in serious psychological and somatic disturbances is
called?
a) Tachyphylaxis
b) Sensibilization
c) Abstinence syndrome
d) Idiosyncrasy
Ans : c
17. What is the type of drug-to-drug interaction which is the result of interaction at receptor, cell, enzyme or organ level?
a) Pharmacodynamic interaction
b) Physical and chemical interaction
c) Pharmaceutical interaction
d) Pharmacokinetic interaction
Ans : a
18. If two drugs with the same effect, taken together, produce an effect that is equal in magnitude to the sum of the effects of
the drugs given individually, it is called as:
a) Antagonism
b) Potentiation
c) Additive effect
d) None of the above
Ans : c
19. The types of antagonism are:
a) Summarized
b) Potentiated
c) Additive
d) Competitive
Ans : d
20. A teratogenic action is:
a) Toxic action on the liver
b) Negative action on the fetus causing fetal malformation
c) Toxic action on blood system
d) Toxic action on kidneys
Ans : b
Pharmacokinetics MCQ Questions
Pharmacokinetics MCQ Questions
Pharmacology questions: MCQs
001. Pharmacokinetics is:
a) The study of biological and therapeutic effects of drugs
b) The study of absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of drugs
c) The study of mechanisms of drug action
d) The study of methods of new drug development
002. What does “pharmacokinetics” include?
a) Complications of drug therapy
b) Drug biotransformation in the organism
c) Influence of drugs on metabolism processes
d) Influence of drugs on genes
002. What does “pharmacokinetics” include?
a) Pharmacological effects of drugs
b) Unwanted effects of drugs
c) Chemical structure of a medicinal agent
d) Distribution of drugs in the organism
003. What does “pharmacokinetics” include?
a) Localization of drug action
b) Mechanisms of drug action
c) Excretion of substances
d) Interaction of substances
004. The main mechanism of most drugs absorption in GI tract is:
a) Active transport (carrier-mediated diffusion)
b) Filtration (aqueous diffusion)
c) Endocytosis and exocytosis
d) Passive diffusion (lipid diffusion)
005. What kind of substances can’t permeate membranes by passive diffusion?
a) Lipid-soluble
b) Non-ionized substances
c) Hydrophobic substances
d) Hydrophilic substances
006. A hydrophilic medicinal agent has the following property:
a) Low ability to penetrate through the cell membrane lipids
b) Penetrate through membranes by means of endocytosis
c) Easy permeation through the blood-brain barrier
d) High reabsorption in renal tubules
007. What is implied by «active transport»?
a) Transport of drugs trough a membrane by means of diffusion
b) Transport without energy consumption
c) Engulf of drug by a cell membrane with a new vesicle formation
d) Transport against concentration gradient
008. What does the term “bioavailability” mean?
a) Plasma protein binding degree of substance
b) Permeability through the brain-blood barrier
c) Fraction of an uncharged drug reaching the systemic circulation following any route administration
d) Amount of a substance in urine relative to the initial doze
009. The reasons determing bioavailability are:
a) Rheological parameters of blood
b) Amount of a substance obtained orally and quantity of intakes
c) Extent of absorption and hepatic first-pass effect
d) Glomerular filtration rate
010. Pick out the appropriate alimentary route of administration when passage of drugs through liver is minimized:
a) Oral
b) Transdermal
c) Rectal
d) Intraduodenal
011. Which route of drug administration is most likely to lead to the first-pass effect?
a) Sublingual
6
b) Oral
c) Intravenous
d) Intramuscular
012. What is characteristic of the oral route?
a) Fast onset of effect
b) Absorption depends on GI tract secretion and motor function
c) A drug reaches the blood passing the liver
d) The sterilization of medicinal forms is obligatory
013. Tick the feature of the sublingual route:
a) Pretty fast absorption
b) A drug is exposed to gastric secretion
c) A drug is exposed more prominent liver metabolism
d) A drug can be administrated in a variety of doses
014. Pick out the parenteral route of medicinal agent administration:
a) Rectal
b) Oral
c) Sublingual
d) Inhalation
015. Parenteral administration:
a) Cannot be used with unconsciousness patients
b) Generally results in a less accurate dosage than oral administration
c) Usually produces a more rapid response than oral administration
d) Is too slow for emergency use
016. What is characteristic of the intramuscular route of drug administration?
a) Only water solutions can be injected
b) Oily solutions can be injected
c) Opportunity of hypertonic solution injections
d) The action develops slower, than at oral administration
017. Intravenous injections are more suitable for oily solutions:
a) True
b) False
018. Correct statements listing characteristics of a particular route of drug administration include all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Intravenous administration provides a rapid response
b) Intramuscular administration requires a sterile technique
c) Inhalation provides slow access to the general circulation
d) Subcutaneous administration may cause local irritation
019. Most of drugs are distributed homogeneously.
a) True
b) False
020. Biological barriers include all except:
a) Renal tubules
b) Cell membranes
c) Capillary walls
d) Placenta
021. What is the reason of complicated penetration of some drugs through brain-blood barrier?
a) High lipid solubility of a drug
b) Meningitis
c) Absence of pores in the brain capillary endothelium
d) High endocytosis degree in a brain capillary
022. The volume of distribution (Vd) relates:
a) Single to a daily dose of an administrated drug
b) An administrated dose to a body weight
c) An uncharged drug reaching the systemic circulation
d) The amount of a drug in the body to the concentration of a drug in plasma
023. For the calculation of the volume of distribution (Vd) one must take into account:
a) Concentration of a substance in plasma
b) Concentration of substance in urine
c) Therapeutical width of drug action
d) A daily dose of drug
024. A small amount of the volume of distribution is common for lipophylic substances easy penetrating through barriers and
widely distributing in plasma, interstitial and cell fluids:
7
a) True
b) False
025. The term “biotransformation” includes the following:
a) Accumulation of substances in a fat tissue
b) Binding of substances with plasma proteins
c) Accumulation of substances in a tissue
d) Process of physicochemical and biochemical alteration of a drug in the body
026. Biotransformation of the drugs is to render them:
a) Less ionized
b) More pharmacologically active
c) More lipid soluble
d) Less lipid soluble
027. Tick the drug type for which microsomal oxidation is the most prominent:
a) Lipid soluble
b) Water soluble
c) Low molecular weight
d) High molecular weight
028. Pick out the right statement:
a) Microsomal oxidation always results in inactivation of a compound
b) Microsomal oxidation results in a decrease of compound toxicity
c) Microsomal oxidation results in an increase of ionization and water solubility of a drug
d) Microsomal oxidation results in an increase of lipid solubility of a drug thus its excretion from the organism is facilitated
029. Stimulation of liver microsomal enzymes can:
a) Require the dose increase of some drugs
b) Require the dose decrease of some drugs
c) Prolong the duration of the action of a drug
d) Intensify the unwanted reaction of a drug
030. Metabolic transformation (phase 1) is:
a) Acetylation and methylation of substances
b) Transformation of substances due to oxidation, reduction or hydrolysis
c) Glucuronide formation
d) Binding to plasma proteins
031. Biotransformation of a medicinal substance results in:
a) Faster urinary excretion
b) Slower urinary excretion
c) Easier distribution in organism
d) Higher binding to membranes
032. Conjugation is:
a) Process of drug reduction by special enzymes
b) Process of drug oxidation by special oxidases
c) Coupling of a drug with an endogenous substrate
d) Solubilization in lipids
033. Which of the following processes proceeds in the second phase of biotransformation?
a) Acetylation
b) Reduction
c) Oxidation
d) Hydrolysis
034. Conjugation of a drug includes the following EXCEPT:
a) Glucoronidation
b) Sulfate formation
c) Hydrolysis
d) Methylation
035. Metabolic transformation and conjugation usually results in an increase of a substance biological activity:
a) True
b) False
036. In case of liver disorders accompanied by a decline in microsomal enzyme activity the duration of action of some drugs
is:
a) Decreased
b) Enlarged
c) Remained unchanged
d) Changed insignificantly
8
037. Half life (t ½) is the time required to:
a) Change the amount of a drug in plasma by half during elimination
b) Metabolize a half of an introduced drug into the active metabolite
c) Absorb a half of an introduced drug
d) Bind a half of an introduced drug to plasma proteins
038. Half life (t ½) doesn’t depend on:
a) Biotransformation
b) Time of drug absorption
c) Concentration of a drug in plasma
d) Rate of drug elimination
039. Elimination is expressed as follows:
a) Rate of renal tubular reabsorption
b) Clearance speed of some volume of blood from substance
c) Time required to decrease the amount of drug in plasma by one-half
d) Clearance of an organism from a xenobiotic
040. Elimination rate constant (Kelim) is defined by the following parameter:
a) Rate of absorption
b) Maximal concentration of a substance in plasma
c) Highest single dose
d) Half life (t ½)
041. The most rapid eliminated drugs are those with high glomerular filtration rate and actively secreted but aren’t passively
reabsorbed:
a) True
b) False
042. Systemic clearance (CLs) is related with:
a) Only the concentration of substances in plasma
b) Only the elimination rate constant
c) Volume of distribution, half life and elimination rate constant
d) Bioavailability and half life
Pharmacology questions: MCQs
001. Pharmacokinetics is:
a) The study of biological and therapeutic effects of drugs
b) The study of absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of drugs
c) The study of mechanisms of drug action
d) The study of methods of new drug development
002. What does “pharmacokinetics” include?
a) Complications of drug therapy
b) Drug biotransformation in the organism
c) Influence of drugs on metabolism processes
d) Influence of drugs on genes
002. What does “pharmacokinetics” include?
a) Pharmacological effects of drugs
b) Unwanted effects of drugs
c) Chemical structure of a medicinal agent
d) Distribution of drugs in the organism
003. What does “pharmacokinetics” include?
a) Localization of drug action
b) Mechanisms of drug action
c) Excretion of substances
d) Interaction of substances
004. The main mechanism of most drugs absorption in GI tract is:
a) Active transport (carrier-mediated diffusion)
b) Filtration (aqueous diffusion)
c) Endocytosis and exocytosis
d) Passive diffusion (lipid diffusion)
005. What kind of substances can’t permeate membranes by passive diffusion?
a) Lipid-soluble
b) Non-ionized substances
c) Hydrophobic substances
d) Hydrophilic substances
006. A hydrophilic medicinal agent has the following property:
a) Low ability to penetrate through the cell membrane lipids
b) Penetrate through membranes by means of endocytosis
c) Easy permeation through the blood-brain barrier
d) High reabsorption in renal tubules
007. What is implied by «active transport»?
a) Transport of drugs trough a membrane by means of diffusion
b) Transport without energy consumption
c) Engulf of drug by a cell membrane with a new vesicle formation
d) Transport against concentration gradient
008. What does the term “bioavailability” mean?
a) Plasma protein binding degree of substance
b) Permeability through the brain-blood barrier
c) Fraction of an uncharged drug reaching the systemic circulation following any route administration
d) Amount of a substance in urine relative to the initial doze
009. The reasons determing bioavailability are:
a) Rheological parameters of blood
b) Amount of a substance obtained orally and quantity of intakes
c) Extent of absorption and hepatic first-pass effect
d) Glomerular filtration rate
010. Pick out the appropriate alimentary route of administration when passage of drugs through liver is minimized:
a) Oral
b) Transdermal
c) Rectal
d) Intraduodenal
011. Which route of drug administration is most likely to lead to the first-pass effect?
a) Sublingual
6
b) Oral
c) Intravenous
d) Intramuscular
012. What is characteristic of the oral route?
a) Fast onset of effect
b) Absorption depends on GI tract secretion and motor function
c) A drug reaches the blood passing the liver
d) The sterilization of medicinal forms is obligatory
013. Tick the feature of the sublingual route:
a) Pretty fast absorption
b) A drug is exposed to gastric secretion
c) A drug is exposed more prominent liver metabolism
d) A drug can be administrated in a variety of doses
014. Pick out the parenteral route of medicinal agent administration:
a) Rectal
b) Oral
c) Sublingual
d) Inhalation
015. Parenteral administration:
a) Cannot be used with unconsciousness patients
b) Generally results in a less accurate dosage than oral administration
c) Usually produces a more rapid response than oral administration
d) Is too slow for emergency use
016. What is characteristic of the intramuscular route of drug administration?
a) Only water solutions can be injected
b) Oily solutions can be injected
c) Opportunity of hypertonic solution injections
d) The action develops slower, than at oral administration
017. Intravenous injections are more suitable for oily solutions:
a) True
b) False
018. Correct statements listing characteristics of a particular route of drug administration include all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Intravenous administration provides a rapid response
b) Intramuscular administration requires a sterile technique
c) Inhalation provides slow access to the general circulation
d) Subcutaneous administration may cause local irritation
019. Most of drugs are distributed homogeneously.
a) True
b) False
020. Biological barriers include all except:
a) Renal tubules
b) Cell membranes
c) Capillary walls
d) Placenta
021. What is the reason of complicated penetration of some drugs through brain-blood barrier?
a) High lipid solubility of a drug
b) Meningitis
c) Absence of pores in the brain capillary endothelium
d) High endocytosis degree in a brain capillary
022. The volume of distribution (Vd) relates:
a) Single to a daily dose of an administrated drug
b) An administrated dose to a body weight
c) An uncharged drug reaching the systemic circulation
d) The amount of a drug in the body to the concentration of a drug in plasma
023. For the calculation of the volume of distribution (Vd) one must take into account:
a) Concentration of a substance in plasma
b) Concentration of substance in urine
c) Therapeutical width of drug action
d) A daily dose of drug
024. A small amount of the volume of distribution is common for lipophylic substances easy penetrating through barriers and
widely distributing in plasma, interstitial and cell fluids:
7
a) True
b) False
025. The term “biotransformation” includes the following:
a) Accumulation of substances in a fat tissue
b) Binding of substances with plasma proteins
c) Accumulation of substances in a tissue
d) Process of physicochemical and biochemical alteration of a drug in the body
026. Biotransformation of the drugs is to render them:
a) Less ionized
b) More pharmacologically active
c) More lipid soluble
d) Less lipid soluble
027. Tick the drug type for which microsomal oxidation is the most prominent:
a) Lipid soluble
b) Water soluble
c) Low molecular weight
d) High molecular weight
028. Pick out the right statement:
a) Microsomal oxidation always results in inactivation of a compound
b) Microsomal oxidation results in a decrease of compound toxicity
c) Microsomal oxidation results in an increase of ionization and water solubility of a drug
d) Microsomal oxidation results in an increase of lipid solubility of a drug thus its excretion from the organism is facilitated
029. Stimulation of liver microsomal enzymes can:
a) Require the dose increase of some drugs
b) Require the dose decrease of some drugs
c) Prolong the duration of the action of a drug
d) Intensify the unwanted reaction of a drug
030. Metabolic transformation (phase 1) is:
a) Acetylation and methylation of substances
b) Transformation of substances due to oxidation, reduction or hydrolysis
c) Glucuronide formation
d) Binding to plasma proteins
031. Biotransformation of a medicinal substance results in:
a) Faster urinary excretion
b) Slower urinary excretion
c) Easier distribution in organism
d) Higher binding to membranes
032. Conjugation is:
a) Process of drug reduction by special enzymes
b) Process of drug oxidation by special oxidases
c) Coupling of a drug with an endogenous substrate
d) Solubilization in lipids
033. Which of the following processes proceeds in the second phase of biotransformation?
a) Acetylation
b) Reduction
c) Oxidation
d) Hydrolysis
034. Conjugation of a drug includes the following EXCEPT:
a) Glucoronidation
b) Sulfate formation
c) Hydrolysis
d) Methylation
035. Metabolic transformation and conjugation usually results in an increase of a substance biological activity:
a) True
b) False
036. In case of liver disorders accompanied by a decline in microsomal enzyme activity the duration of action of some drugs
is:
a) Decreased
b) Enlarged
c) Remained unchanged
d) Changed insignificantly
8
037. Half life (t ½) is the time required to:
a) Change the amount of a drug in plasma by half during elimination
b) Metabolize a half of an introduced drug into the active metabolite
c) Absorb a half of an introduced drug
d) Bind a half of an introduced drug to plasma proteins
038. Half life (t ½) doesn’t depend on:
a) Biotransformation
b) Time of drug absorption
c) Concentration of a drug in plasma
d) Rate of drug elimination
039. Elimination is expressed as follows:
a) Rate of renal tubular reabsorption
b) Clearance speed of some volume of blood from substance
c) Time required to decrease the amount of drug in plasma by one-half
d) Clearance of an organism from a xenobiotic
040. Elimination rate constant (Kelim) is defined by the following parameter:
a) Rate of absorption
b) Maximal concentration of a substance in plasma
c) Highest single dose
d) Half life (t ½)
041. The most rapid eliminated drugs are those with high glomerular filtration rate and actively secreted but aren’t passively
reabsorbed:
a) True
b) False
042. Systemic clearance (CLs) is related with:
a) Only the concentration of substances in plasma
b) Only the elimination rate constant
c) Volume of distribution, half life and elimination rate constant
d) Bioavailability and half life
SBI BANK PO PREVIOUS YEAR SOLVED PAPER
SBI BANK PO PREVIOUS YEAR SOLVED PAPER (Held on July 6 , 2008)
SBI BANK PO (PT) SOLVED PAPER (Held on July 6 , 2008)
General English
Directions—(Q. 41–50) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.
The yearly festival was close at hand. The store room was packed with silk fabrics. gold ornaments, clay bowls full of sweet curd and platefuls of sweetmeats. The orders had been placed with shops well in advance. The mother was sending out gifts to everyone.
The eldest son, a government servant, lived with his wife and children in far off lands. The second son had left home at an early age. As a merchant he travelled all over the world. The other sons had split up over petty squabbles, and they now lived in homes of their own. The relatives were spread all across the world. They rarely visited. The youngest son, left in the company of a servant, was soon bored and stood at the door all day long, waiting and watching. His mother, thrilled and excited, loaded the presents on trays and plates, covered them with colourful kerchiefs, and sent them off with maids and servants. The neighbours looked on.
The day came to an end. All the presents had been sent off.
The child came back into the house and dejectedly said to his mother, “Maa, you gave a present to everyone, but you didn’t give me anything !”
His mother laughed, “I have given all the gifts away to everyone, now see what’s left for you.” She kissed him on the forehead.
The child said in a tearful voice, “Don’t I get a gift ?”
“You’ll get it when you go far away.”
“But when I am close to you, don’t I get something from your own hands ?”
His mother reached out her arms and drew him to her. “This is all I have in my own hands. It is the most precious of all.”
41. Why did the woman's second son travel ?
(A) He was restless by nature
(B) He did not want to stay at home
(C) He was rich and could afford to travel
(D) His job was such that he had to travel
(E) None of these
42. Why did the woman’s eldest son not attend the festival ?
(A) He was not on good terms with his youngest brother who lived at home
(B) He had quarrelled with his mother
(C) His wife did not allow him to return home
(D) His job prevented him from taking leave
(E) None of these
43. How did the woman prepare for the festival ?
1. She bought expensive gifts for her children and neighbours.
2. She ordered her servants to prepare sweets and food well in advance.
3. She made sure that her youngest child was looked after so that he wouldn’t be bored.
(A) None
(B) Only 1
(C) Only 2
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
44. What did the youngest child do while his mother was busy ?
1. He waited for a chance to steal some sweetmeats.
2. He pestered his mother to give him a present.
3. He stood at the door with servants.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 3
(D) Only 3
(E) None of these
45. Which of the following can be said about the woman ?
(A) She was a widow who had brought up her children single handedly
(B) She was not a good mother since her children had left home at an early age
(C) She enjoyed sending her family gifts at festival time
(D) She gave expensive presents to show that she was wealthy
(E) She rarely visited her grand-children because they all lived abroad
46. What did the boy receive from his mother ?
(A) She taught him the value of patience
(B) She encouraged him to grow up and live independently like his brothers
(C) She showed him the importance of giving expensive gifts
(D) She gave him a hug to express her love
(E) None of these
47. Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage ?
(A) The woman usually ignored her youngest son
(B) The woman’s eldest son lived abroad
(C) The members of the woman’s family did not care about her
(D) The woman made all the preparations herself since she did not want to burden the servants
(E) The woman sent gifts to her children to ensure that they visited her
Directions—(Q. 48–49) Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
48. Left
(A) Gone
(B) Quit
(C) Remaining
(D) Disappeared
(E) Forgot
49. Packed
A) Filled
(B) Squeezed
(C) Crowd
(D) Collected
(E) Untidy
50. Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word dejectedly as used in the passage.
(A) Calmly
(B) Happily
(C) Willingly
(D) Fortunately
(E) Softly
Directions—(Q. 51–55) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)
51. Many multinational companies (A) / have not been as (B) /successful in India (C) /than we expected. (D) No error (E)
52. He has ruined (A) /his eyesight (B) /by not using (C) /his spectacles regularly. (D) No error (E)
53. Mostly of the (A) /newly recruited officers (B) /have no experience (C) /in the banking sector. (D) No error (E)
54. The resignation of (A) /one of our directors (B) /have caused the price (C) / of shares to fall. (D) No error (E)
55. There are many (A) /ways of which (B) /inflation can (C) /be measured. (D) No error (E)
Directions—(Q. 56–60) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No correction is required.’ mark (E) as the answer.
56. Each of the loan must be approved by the Branch Manager—
(A) Every loan
(B) Each one of the loan
(C) Any of the loan
(D) All of the loan
(E) No correction required
57. The issue was taken before the Municipal Corporation meeting last week—
(A) Taking place at
(B) Taken after
(C) Being taken in
(D) Taken up at
(E) No correction required
58. He has asked for the names of those employees involved in the project.
(A) had asked
(B) having asked about
(C) was asked that
(D) is asking
(E) no correction required
59. Considerate the traffic, it is better to leave for the airport an hour early—
A) While considering
(B) Consideration of
(C) Considering
(D) Being considerate to
(E) No correction required
SBI BANK PO (PT) SOLVED PAPER (Held on July 6 , 2008)
General English
60. He is a good leader, knowing that to motivate his employees to achieve—
(A) That known when
(B) Who knows how
(C) Which knows how
(D) Knowing what
(E) No correction required
Directions—(Q. 61–65) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(1) The able bodied men of the tribe gathered to discuss how to climb the mountain.
(2) As part of their plundering they kidnapped a baby of one of the families.
(3) One day the mountain tribe invaded those living in the valley.
(4) “We couldn’t climb the mountain. How could you?”, they asked, “It wasn’t your baby !” she replied.
(5) There were two tribes in the Andes –one lived in the valley and the other high up in the mountains.
(6) Two days later they noticed the child’s mother coming down the mountain that they hadn’t yet figured out how to climb.
61. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)
(E) (5)
62. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (6)
(B) (5)
(C) (4)
(D) (3)
(E) (2)
63. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)
(E) (5)
64. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)
(E) (5)
65. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)
(E) (5)
Directions—(Q. 66–70): In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word, which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence mark (E) i.e., all correct as your answer.
66. The income (A) of many people in rural (B) India is not adequate (C) to satisfy (D) their basic needs. All correct (E)
67. He is always (A) prompt (B) in caring (C) out instructions. (D) All correct (E)
68. The revized (A) rates (B) of interest will be effective (C) immediately. (D) All correct (E)
69. Such transactions (A) are quiet (B) expensive (C) and time consuming (D) for customers. All correct (E)
70. The guidelines (A) of the new scheme (B) are expected (C) to be finally (D) soon. All correct (E)
Directions—(Q. 71–80) In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words/ phrases are suggested one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
I used to look …(71)… to the holidays. I was usually …(72)… to my uncle’s house where I …(73)… his children. I did not get paid a salary for …(74)… What I received in return however, was far more …(75)… My uncle was an avid reader. During the time I spent with his family I had an …(76)… to read the vast amount of books and magazines that he possessed. This improved my English to some …(77)… Reading became my new …(78–79)… spending my pocket money on a ticket to the cinema I began to …(80)… books. This has benefited me greatly.
71. (A) forward
(B) towards
(C) backward
(D) up
(E) around
72. (A) went
(B) sent
(C) visited
(D) travelled
(E) gone
73. (A) cared
(B) occupy
(C) guarded
(D) taught
(E) played
74. (A) them
(B) whom
(C) this
(D) now
(E) which
75. (A) expensive
(B) deserving
(C) helping
(D) demanding
(E) valuable
76. (A) opportunity
(B) ability
(C) use
(D) encouragement
(E) achievement
77. (A) distance
(B) extent
(C) time
(D) limits
(E) degrees
78. (A) activity
(B) hope
(C) hobby
(D) duty
(E) worship
79. (A) despite
(B) though
(C) by
(D) instead of
(E) while
80. (A) sell
(B) read
(C) exchange
(D) invest
(E) buy
Answers:
41. (D) 42. (E) 43. (A) 44. (D)
45. (C) 46. (D) 47. (B)
48. (C) 49. (A) 50. (C)
51. (D) Replace ‘than’ with ‘as’.
52. (E)
53. (A) Change ‘Mostly’ to ‘Most’.
54. (C) Change ‘have’ to ‘has’.
55. (B) Replace ‘of’ with ‘in’.
56. (A) 57. (D) 58. (E) 59. (C) 60. (B)
61. (C) 62. (A) 63. (E) 64. (D) 65. (B)
66. (E) 67. (C) 68. (A) 69. (E) 70. (D)
71. (A) 72. (B) 73. (D) 74. (C) 75. (E)
76. (A) 77. (B) 78. (C) 79. (D) 80. (E)
SBI BANK PO (PT) SOLVED PAPER (Held on July 6 , 2008)
General English
Directions—(Q. 41–50) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.
The yearly festival was close at hand. The store room was packed with silk fabrics. gold ornaments, clay bowls full of sweet curd and platefuls of sweetmeats. The orders had been placed with shops well in advance. The mother was sending out gifts to everyone.
The eldest son, a government servant, lived with his wife and children in far off lands. The second son had left home at an early age. As a merchant he travelled all over the world. The other sons had split up over petty squabbles, and they now lived in homes of their own. The relatives were spread all across the world. They rarely visited. The youngest son, left in the company of a servant, was soon bored and stood at the door all day long, waiting and watching. His mother, thrilled and excited, loaded the presents on trays and plates, covered them with colourful kerchiefs, and sent them off with maids and servants. The neighbours looked on.
The day came to an end. All the presents had been sent off.
The child came back into the house and dejectedly said to his mother, “Maa, you gave a present to everyone, but you didn’t give me anything !”
His mother laughed, “I have given all the gifts away to everyone, now see what’s left for you.” She kissed him on the forehead.
The child said in a tearful voice, “Don’t I get a gift ?”
“You’ll get it when you go far away.”
“But when I am close to you, don’t I get something from your own hands ?”
His mother reached out her arms and drew him to her. “This is all I have in my own hands. It is the most precious of all.”
41. Why did the woman's second son travel ?
(A) He was restless by nature
(B) He did not want to stay at home
(C) He was rich and could afford to travel
(D) His job was such that he had to travel
(E) None of these
42. Why did the woman’s eldest son not attend the festival ?
(A) He was not on good terms with his youngest brother who lived at home
(B) He had quarrelled with his mother
(C) His wife did not allow him to return home
(D) His job prevented him from taking leave
(E) None of these
43. How did the woman prepare for the festival ?
1. She bought expensive gifts for her children and neighbours.
2. She ordered her servants to prepare sweets and food well in advance.
3. She made sure that her youngest child was looked after so that he wouldn’t be bored.
(A) None
(B) Only 1
(C) Only 2
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
44. What did the youngest child do while his mother was busy ?
1. He waited for a chance to steal some sweetmeats.
2. He pestered his mother to give him a present.
3. He stood at the door with servants.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 3
(D) Only 3
(E) None of these
45. Which of the following can be said about the woman ?
(A) She was a widow who had brought up her children single handedly
(B) She was not a good mother since her children had left home at an early age
(C) She enjoyed sending her family gifts at festival time
(D) She gave expensive presents to show that she was wealthy
(E) She rarely visited her grand-children because they all lived abroad
46. What did the boy receive from his mother ?
(A) She taught him the value of patience
(B) She encouraged him to grow up and live independently like his brothers
(C) She showed him the importance of giving expensive gifts
(D) She gave him a hug to express her love
(E) None of these
47. Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage ?
(A) The woman usually ignored her youngest son
(B) The woman’s eldest son lived abroad
(C) The members of the woman’s family did not care about her
(D) The woman made all the preparations herself since she did not want to burden the servants
(E) The woman sent gifts to her children to ensure that they visited her
Directions—(Q. 48–49) Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
48. Left
(A) Gone
(B) Quit
(C) Remaining
(D) Disappeared
(E) Forgot
49. Packed
A) Filled
(B) Squeezed
(C) Crowd
(D) Collected
(E) Untidy
50. Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word dejectedly as used in the passage.
(A) Calmly
(B) Happily
(C) Willingly
(D) Fortunately
(E) Softly
Directions—(Q. 51–55) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)
51. Many multinational companies (A) / have not been as (B) /successful in India (C) /than we expected. (D) No error (E)
52. He has ruined (A) /his eyesight (B) /by not using (C) /his spectacles regularly. (D) No error (E)
53. Mostly of the (A) /newly recruited officers (B) /have no experience (C) /in the banking sector. (D) No error (E)
54. The resignation of (A) /one of our directors (B) /have caused the price (C) / of shares to fall. (D) No error (E)
55. There are many (A) /ways of which (B) /inflation can (C) /be measured. (D) No error (E)
Directions—(Q. 56–60) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No correction is required.’ mark (E) as the answer.
56. Each of the loan must be approved by the Branch Manager—
(A) Every loan
(B) Each one of the loan
(C) Any of the loan
(D) All of the loan
(E) No correction required
57. The issue was taken before the Municipal Corporation meeting last week—
(A) Taking place at
(B) Taken after
(C) Being taken in
(D) Taken up at
(E) No correction required
58. He has asked for the names of those employees involved in the project.
(A) had asked
(B) having asked about
(C) was asked that
(D) is asking
(E) no correction required
59. Considerate the traffic, it is better to leave for the airport an hour early—
A) While considering
(B) Consideration of
(C) Considering
(D) Being considerate to
(E) No correction required
SBI BANK PO (PT) SOLVED PAPER (Held on July 6 , 2008)
General English
60. He is a good leader, knowing that to motivate his employees to achieve—
(A) That known when
(B) Who knows how
(C) Which knows how
(D) Knowing what
(E) No correction required
Directions—(Q. 61–65) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(1) The able bodied men of the tribe gathered to discuss how to climb the mountain.
(2) As part of their plundering they kidnapped a baby of one of the families.
(3) One day the mountain tribe invaded those living in the valley.
(4) “We couldn’t climb the mountain. How could you?”, they asked, “It wasn’t your baby !” she replied.
(5) There were two tribes in the Andes –one lived in the valley and the other high up in the mountains.
(6) Two days later they noticed the child’s mother coming down the mountain that they hadn’t yet figured out how to climb.
61. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)
(E) (5)
62. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (6)
(B) (5)
(C) (4)
(D) (3)
(E) (2)
63. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)
(E) (5)
64. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)
(E) (5)
65. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)
(E) (5)
Directions—(Q. 66–70): In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word, which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence mark (E) i.e., all correct as your answer.
66. The income (A) of many people in rural (B) India is not adequate (C) to satisfy (D) their basic needs. All correct (E)
67. He is always (A) prompt (B) in caring (C) out instructions. (D) All correct (E)
68. The revized (A) rates (B) of interest will be effective (C) immediately. (D) All correct (E)
69. Such transactions (A) are quiet (B) expensive (C) and time consuming (D) for customers. All correct (E)
70. The guidelines (A) of the new scheme (B) are expected (C) to be finally (D) soon. All correct (E)
Directions—(Q. 71–80) In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words/ phrases are suggested one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
I used to look …(71)… to the holidays. I was usually …(72)… to my uncle’s house where I …(73)… his children. I did not get paid a salary for …(74)… What I received in return however, was far more …(75)… My uncle was an avid reader. During the time I spent with his family I had an …(76)… to read the vast amount of books and magazines that he possessed. This improved my English to some …(77)… Reading became my new …(78–79)… spending my pocket money on a ticket to the cinema I began to …(80)… books. This has benefited me greatly.
71. (A) forward
(B) towards
(C) backward
(D) up
(E) around
72. (A) went
(B) sent
(C) visited
(D) travelled
(E) gone
73. (A) cared
(B) occupy
(C) guarded
(D) taught
(E) played
74. (A) them
(B) whom
(C) this
(D) now
(E) which
75. (A) expensive
(B) deserving
(C) helping
(D) demanding
(E) valuable
76. (A) opportunity
(B) ability
(C) use
(D) encouragement
(E) achievement
77. (A) distance
(B) extent
(C) time
(D) limits
(E) degrees
78. (A) activity
(B) hope
(C) hobby
(D) duty
(E) worship
79. (A) despite
(B) though
(C) by
(D) instead of
(E) while
80. (A) sell
(B) read
(C) exchange
(D) invest
(E) buy
Answers:
41. (D) 42. (E) 43. (A) 44. (D)
45. (C) 46. (D) 47. (B)
48. (C) 49. (A) 50. (C)
51. (D) Replace ‘than’ with ‘as’.
52. (E)
53. (A) Change ‘Mostly’ to ‘Most’.
54. (C) Change ‘have’ to ‘has’.
55. (B) Replace ‘of’ with ‘in’.
56. (A) 57. (D) 58. (E) 59. (C) 60. (B)
61. (C) 62. (A) 63. (E) 64. (D) 65. (B)
66. (E) 67. (C) 68. (A) 69. (E) 70. (D)
71. (A) 72. (B) 73. (D) 74. (C) 75. (E)
76. (A) 77. (B) 78. (C) 79. (D) 80. (E)
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